an 86 year old nursing home resident who has decreased mental status is hospitalized with pneumonic infiltrates in the right lower lobe when the nurse
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Nutrition HESI Practice Exam

1. An 86-year-old nursing home resident who has decreased mental status is hospitalized with pneumonic infiltrates in the right lower lobe. When the nurse assists the client with a clear liquid diet, the client begins to cough. What should the nurse do next?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Checking the client's gag reflex is the appropriate action in this scenario. It helps assess the client's ability to swallow safely without the risk of aspiration. Adding a thickening agent to the fluids (Choice A) may be considered later if swallowing difficulties persist. Feeding the client only solid foods (Choice C) can increase the risk of aspiration in this case, and increasing the rate of intravenous fluids (Choice D) does not address the swallowing concern.

2. After a myocardial infarction, a client is placed on a sodium-restricted diet. When the nurse is teaching the client about the diet, which meal plan would be the most appropriate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A meal of turkey, sweet potato, green beans, milk, and an orange is low in sodium and suitable for a post-MI diet. Choice A includes a baked potato and canned beets, which are higher in sodium. Choice B includes canned salmon, which can be high in sodium. Choice C includes a bologna sandwich, which is also high in sodium compared to the other options.

3. A client has altered renal function and is being treated at home. The nurse recognizes that the most accurate indicator of fluid balance during the weekly visits is:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with altered renal function, monitoring fluid balance is crucial. Weekly weight is the most accurate indicator of fluid balance during the visits as it reflects cumulative changes in the body's fluid status. Changes in intake and output (Choice A) can provide valuable information, but weekly weight is a more direct measure of overall fluid retention or loss. Changes in mucous membranes (Choice B) and skin turgor (Choice C) can be influenced by factors other than fluid balance, making them less reliable indicators in this context.

4. A 4-year-old has been hospitalized for 24 hours with skeletal traction for treatment of a fracture of the right femur. The nurse finds that the child is now crying and the right foot is pale with the absence of a pulse. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, a pale foot with the absence of a pulse indicates compromised circulation, which is a critical emergency. The nurse should immediately notify the healthcare provider to address the circulation issue promptly. Reading the question and understanding the urgency is vital. Readjusting the traction, administering PRN medication, or waiting to reassess the foot in fifteen minutes are not appropriate actions when a child is experiencing compromised circulation.

5. The nurse receives an order to give a client iron by deep injection. The nurse knows that the reason for this route is to

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Deep injection helps to prevent tissue irritation caused by iron, which can be damaging to tissues. Option A is incorrect because deep injection does not primarily aim to enhance absorption, but rather to prevent tissue irritation. Option B is incorrect as the route of administration does not determine whether the entire dose is given. Option C is incorrect because the even distribution of the drug is not the main purpose of deep injection in this context.

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