after administering a proton pump inhibitor which action should the nurse take to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. After administering a proton pump inhibitor, which action should the nurse take to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the client about pain levels. Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) work by reducing stomach acid to alleviate gastrointestinal pain. By inquiring about the client's pain experience, the nurse can directly assess the effectiveness of the medication. Monitoring bowel movements (Choice A) is not directly related to evaluating the effectiveness of a PPI. Checking vital signs (Choice C) may not reflect the medication's effectiveness in reducing stomach acid. Assessing for signs of bleeding (Choice D) is important but not the most direct way to evaluate the effectiveness of a PPI.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus is prescribed metformin. What teaching should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct teaching for a client prescribed metformin includes monitoring renal function regularly due to the risk of lactic acidosis, especially in clients with impaired kidney function. While taking metformin with meals can reduce gastrointestinal upset, it is not the highest priority teaching point. Avoiding alcohol is generally recommended but not the most critical teaching point in this scenario. Checking blood glucose levels regularly is important for diabetes management but not specifically related to metformin use.

3. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client with chronic kidney disease. The client's serum calcium level is 7.5 mg/dL. Which condition should the nurse suspect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A serum calcium level of 7.5 mg/dL is indicative of hypocalcemia, a common complication in clients with chronic kidney disease due to impaired calcium absorption and metabolism. Hypercalcemia (Choice A) is the opposite of the condition presented in the question and is characterized by elevated serum calcium levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice B) is an increased potassium level, not related to the client's serum calcium level. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is a decreased sodium level and is also not related to the client's serum calcium level.

4. A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. What side effect should the nurse teach the client to monitor for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Monitor for a persistent cough.' Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, is associated with a common side effect of a persistent dry cough. This cough can be bothersome to the client and should be reported to their healthcare provider. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because bradycardia, dizziness, swelling, difficulty breathing, headache, and blurred vision are not typically associated with lisinopril use.

5. A client is receiving IV fluid therapy for dehydration. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's fluid status is improving?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An increase in urine output is a positive sign that the client's hydration status is improving. It indicates that the kidneys are functioning well and that fluid therapy is effective. Increased urine output helps to eliminate excess fluid and waste products from the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Feeling more thirsty (choice B) is a sign of dehydration, not improvement. A decrease in blood pressure (choice C) and an increase in heart rate (choice D) are not typically indicative of improving fluid status during IV fluid therapy for dehydration.

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