a woman is considered to be menopause if she has experienced cessation of her menses for a period of
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Reproductive System Exam Questions

1. A woman is considered to be in menopause if she has experienced the cessation of her menses for a period of:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Menopause is defined as the cessation of menses for 12 months. This period is significant because it indicates the end of a woman's reproductive years. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the established criteria for defining menopause.

2. Oligomenorrhea is defined as a cycle longer than:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Oligomenorrhea is defined as a menstrual cycle longer than 35 days. A cycle of 28 days (Choice A) is within the normal range, and not considered oligomenorrhea. Similarly, 30 days (Choice B) and 40 days (Choice D) are also within the normal range. The correct definition of oligomenorrhea specifically refers to cycles longer than 35 days, making Choice C the correct answer.

3. Which of the following is NOT a phase of the menstrual cycle?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The secretory phase is not considered a distinct phase of the menstrual cycle; it is actually part of the luteal phase. During the luteal phase, the endometrium thickens due to progesterone secretion, preparing for implantation. The follicular phase is characterized by follicle development, leading to ovulation. The ovulatory phase is when the mature egg is released from the ovary. Therefore, the secretory phase is the correct answer as it is not a standalone phase but a part of the luteal phase.

4. The surgical procedure done in Bartholin's abscess is called:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Marsupialization. Marsupialization is the surgical procedure specifically performed for Bartholin's abscess. This procedure involves creating a new duct for the Bartholin's gland to prevent future abscess formation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because hysterectomy involves the removal of the uterus, oophorectomy involves the removal of the ovaries, and salpingectomy involves the removal of the fallopian tubes, none of which are the appropriate procedures for treating a Bartholin's abscess.

5. Which hormone is primarily responsible for the development of female secondary sexual characteristics?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Estrogen is primarily responsible for the development of female secondary sexual characteristics. Progesterone, while important in the menstrual cycle and pregnancy, is not primarily responsible for secondary sexual characteristics. Testosterone is the primary male sex hormone. Oxytocin is involved in labor, lactation, and social bonding, but not in the development of female secondary sexual characteristics.

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