Nursing Elites

1. A patient with acute shortness of breath is admitted to the hospital. Which action should the nurse take during the initial assessment of the patient?

• A. Ask the patient to lie down to complete a full physical assessment.
• B. Briefly ask specific questions about this episode of respiratory distress.
• C. Complete the admission database to check for allergies before treatment.
• D. Delay the physical assessment to first complete pulmonary function tests.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient presents with acute shortness of breath, the initial assessment should focus on gathering specific information relevant to the current episode of respiratory distress. A comprehensive health history or full physical examination can be deferred until the acute distress has been addressed. Asking specific questions helps determine the cause of the distress and guides appropriate treatment. While checking for allergies is important, completing the entire admission database is not a priority during the initial assessment. Likewise, delaying the physical assessment for pulmonary function tests is not recommended as the immediate focus should be on addressing the acute respiratory distress before ordering further diagnostic tests or interventions.

2. The nurse is reviewing the lab results of a patient taking lithium for schizoaffective disorder. The lab results show that the blood lithium value is 1.7 mcg/L. What would the nurse take as the priority action?

• A. Induce vomiting
• B. Hold the next dose of Lithium
• C. Administer an antiemetic
• D. Give the next dose of Lithium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the next dose of Lithium. The blood lithium value of 1.7 mcg/L exceeds the therapeutic range of 0.5-1.5 mcg/L, indicating potential toxicity. Holding the next dose is crucial to prevent further accumulation of lithium in the bloodstream. Inducing vomiting is not appropriate in this situation as the priority is to prevent further absorption of lithium. Administering an antiemetic is not the priority in lithium toxicity. Giving the next dose of lithium would exacerbate the toxicity and should be avoided.

3. The healthcare professional calculates the IV flow rate for a patient receiving an antibiotic. The patient is to receive 100mL of the antibiotic over 30 minutes. The IV infusion set has a drop factor of 10 drops per milliliter. How many drops per minute should the healthcare professional set the IV to deliver?

• A. 11
• B. 19
• C. 26
• D. 33

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To determine the drops per minute for the IV flow rate, you can use the formula: Drops Per Minute = (Milliliters to be infused x Drop Factor) / Time in Minutes. Substituting the given values, you get 100 mL x 10 drops/mL / 30 minutes = 33 drops per minute. Therefore, the correct answer is 33, as the healthcare professional should set the IV to deliver 33 drops per minute to infuse the antibiotic correctly. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not match the calculated drops per minute based on the provided values.

4. When analyzing the results of the urinalysis collected preoperatively from a child with epispadias scheduled for surgical repair, which finding should the nurse most likely expect to note?

• A. Hematuria
• B. Proteinuria
• C. Bacteriuria
• D. Glucosuria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Epispadias is a congenital defect characterized by the abnormal placement of the urethral orifice of the penis, often on the dorsum. This anatomical anomaly predisposes individuals to bacterial entry into the urinary tract, leading to bacteriuria. Hematuria, proteinuria, and glucosuria are not typically associated with epispadias. Hematuria refers to the presence of blood in the urine, proteinuria indicates protein in the urine, and glucosuria is the presence of glucose in the urine, none of which are commonly seen in epispadias.

5. A patient with leukemia is receiving chemotherapy that is known to depress bone marrow. A CBC (complete blood count) reveals a platelet count of 25,000/microliter. Which of the following actions related specifically to the platelet count should be included in the nursing care plan?

• A. Monitor for fever every 4 hours.
• B. Require visitors to wear respiratory masks and protective clothing.
• C. Consider transfusion of packed red blood cells.
• D. Check for signs of bleeding, including examination of urine and stool for blood.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A platelet count of 25,000/microliter indicates severe thrombocytopenia, which increases the risk of bleeding. It is crucial to initiate bleeding precautions, including regularly checking for signs of bleeding such as examining urine and stool for blood. Monitoring for fever every 4 hours (Choice A) should be included for neutropenic precautions, not specifically related to platelet count. Requiring visitors to wear respiratory masks and protective clothing (Choice B) is more relevant for patients with airborne precautions. Considering transfusion of packed red blood cells (Choice C) is not indicated for low platelet count but is more appropriate for managing anemia or low hemoglobin levels.

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