NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Prioritization Questions
1. A patient with acute shortness of breath is admitted to the hospital. Which action should the nurse take during the initial assessment of the patient?
- A. Ask the patient to lie down to complete a full physical assessment.
- B. Briefly ask specific questions about this episode of respiratory distress.
- C. Complete the admission database to check for allergies before treatment.
- D. Delay the physical assessment to first complete pulmonary function tests.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a patient presents with acute shortness of breath, the initial assessment should focus on gathering specific information relevant to the current episode of respiratory distress. A comprehensive health history or full physical examination can be deferred until the acute distress has been addressed. Asking specific questions helps determine the cause of the distress and guides appropriate treatment. While checking for allergies is important, completing the entire admission database is not a priority during the initial assessment. Likewise, delaying the physical assessment for pulmonary function tests is not recommended as the immediate focus should be on addressing the acute respiratory distress before ordering further diagnostic tests or interventions.
2. A child is diagnosed with Hirschsprung's disease. The nurse is teaching the parents about the cause of the disease. Which statement, if made by the parent, supports that teaching was successful?
- A. The absence of special cells in the rectum caused the disease.
- B. Incomplete digestion of the protein part of wheat, barley, rye, and oats is not the cause of the disease.
- C. The disease does not occur due to increased bowel motility leading to spasm and pain.
- D. The disease is not caused by the inability to tolerate sugar found in dairy products.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hirschsprung's disease, also known as congenital aganglionosis or megacolon, is characterized by the absence of ganglion cells in the rectum and, sometimes, extending into the colon. Choice A correctly explains the cause of Hirschsprung's disease. Choice B is incorrect as it describes celiac disease, which is related to gluten intolerance. Choice C is inaccurate as it describes symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome, not the cause of Hirschsprung's disease. Choice D is wrong as it pertains to lactose intolerance, not Hirschsprung's disease.
3. Which response by the nurse best explains the purpose of ranitidine (Zantac) for a patient admitted with bleeding esophageal varices?
- A. The medication will reduce the risk of aspiration.
- B. The medication will inhibit the development of gastric ulcers.
- C. The medication will prevent irritation of the enlarged veins.
- D. The medication will decrease nausea and improve appetite.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is: 'The medication will prevent irritation of the enlarged veins.' Esophageal varices are dilated submucosal veins. The therapeutic action of H2-receptor blockers in patients with esophageal varices is to prevent irritation and bleeding from the varices caused by reflux of acidic gastric contents. While ranitidine can decrease the risk of peptic ulcers, reduce nausea, and help prevent aspiration pneumonia, the primary purpose of H2-receptor blockade in this patient is to prevent irritation and bleeding from the varices, not the other listed effects.
4. What is a priority problem for a child with severe edema caused by nephrotic syndrome?
- A. Risk for constipation
- B. Risk for skin breakdown
- C. Inability to regulate body temperature
- D. Consuming more calories or nutrients than the body requires
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In nephrotic syndrome, characterized by massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema, a child with severe edema is at high risk for skin breakdown. The priority concern is to prevent skin breakdown by cleaning skin surfaces and ensuring adequate separation with clothing to avoid irritation. The child with nephrotic syndrome is typically anorexic, making consuming more calories or nutrients than necessary not a concern. Risk for constipation and inability to regulate body temperature are not primary issues associated with edema caused by nephrotic syndrome.
5. A patient asks a nurse administering blood how long red blood cells live in the body. What is the correct response?
- A. The life span of RBC is 45 days
- B. The life span of RBC is 60 days
- C. The life span of RBC is 90 days
- D. The life span of RBC is 120 days
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is that red blood cells have a lifespan of 120 days in the body. This allows for efficient oxygen transport throughout the circulatory system. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the lifespan of red blood cells is actually 120 days. Understanding the lifespan of red blood cells is crucial in assessing various conditions related to blood cell production and turnover.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access