NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Questions
1. Administration of hepatitis B vaccine to a healthy 18-year-old patient has been effective when a specimen of the patient's blood reveals
- A. HBsAg.
- B. anti-HBs
- C. anti-HBc IgG
- D. anti-HBc IgM.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'anti-HBs'. The presence of surface antibody to HBV (anti-HBs) indicates a successful response to the hepatitis B vaccine. Anti-HBs is a marker of immunity and protection against hepatitis B infection. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because: A) HBsAg indicates current infection with hepatitis B virus, C) anti-HBc IgG suggests past infection or immunity, and D) anti-HBc IgM is a marker of acute hepatitis B infection.
2. Following a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) in their 6-year-old child, the parent's remark: "We just don't know how he caught the disease!"? The nurse's response is based on an understanding that:
- A. AGN is a streptococcal infection that involves the kidney tubules.
- B. The disease is easily transmissible in schools and camps.
- C. The illness is usually associated with chronic respiratory infections.
- D. It is not "caught"? but is a response to a previous B-hemolytic strep infection.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is that acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) is not 'caught' but is a response to a previous B-hemolytic strep infection. AGN is generally accepted as an immune-complex disease triggered by an antecedent streptococcal infection occurring 4 to 6 weeks prior. It is considered a noninfectious renal disease. Choice A is incorrect because AGN is not a streptococcal infection that involves the kidney tubules but rather a noninfectious renal disease. Choice B is incorrect as AGN is not easily transmissible in schools and camps but is a result of a previous streptococcal infection. Choice C is incorrect as AGN is not usually associated with chronic respiratory infections, but with a previous streptococcal infection.
3. The healthcare provider is caring for a 20 lbs (9 kg) 6-month-old with a 3-day history of diarrhea, occasional vomiting, and fever. Peripheral intravenous therapy has been initiated, with 5% dextrose in 0.33% normal saline with 20 mEq of potassium per liter infusing at 35 ml/hr. Which finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. 3 episodes of vomiting in 1 hour
- B. Periodic crying and irritability
- C. Vigorous sucking on a pacifier
- D. No measurable voiding in 4 hours
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'No measurable voiding in 4 hours.' This finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. The concern is the possibility of hyperkalemia, which could occur with continued potassium administration and a decrease in urinary output since potassium is excreted via the kidneys. It is crucial to monitor urinary output in pediatric patients receiving potassium-containing IV solutions to prevent electrolyte imbalances and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C are not the most critical findings that require immediate reporting. '3 episodes of vomiting in 1 hour' may suggest a need for antiemetic therapy or further assessment of the underlying cause but does not pose an immediate risk like the potential electrolyte imbalance from decreased urinary output. 'Periodic crying and irritability' and 'Vigorous sucking on a pacifier' are common behaviors in infants and are not indicative of a critical condition that requires urgent attention in this scenario.
4. A patient is being admitted to the ICU with a severe case of encephalitis. Which of these drugs would the nurse not expect to be prescribed for this condition?
- A. Acyclovir (Zovirax)
- B. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
- C. Lactated Ringer's
- D. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the treatment of encephalitis, medications like Acyclovir and Phenytoin are commonly prescribed. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat viral infections like herpes simplex virus, which can cause encephalitis. Phenytoin is an antiepileptic drug that may be used to manage seizures associated with encephalitis. Mannitol is a diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure (ICP) by decreasing cerebral edema. Lactated Ringer's solution, on the other hand, is primarily used in fluid replacement therapy and may not be indicated if a patient is at risk for high ICP, as excessive fluid administration could worsen cerebral edema and increase ICP.
5. When caring for a patient hospitalized with active tuberculosis (TB), the nurse observes a student nurse who is assigned to take care of the patient. Which action, if performed by the student nurse, would require an intervention by the nurse?
- A. The patient is offered a tissue from the box at the bedside.
- B. A surgical face mask is applied before visiting the patient.
- C. A snack is brought to the patient from the unit refrigerator.
- D. Hand washing is performed before entering the patient's room.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When caring for a patient with active tuberculosis (TB), it is crucial to use a high-efficiency particulate-absorbing (HEPA) mask instead of a standard surgical mask when entering the patient's room, as a HEPA mask can filter out 100% of small airborne particles, reducing the risk of transmission. Therefore, if the student nurse applies only a surgical face mask before visiting the patient, this action would require intervention by the nurse to ensure the appropriate protective equipment is used. Hand washing before entering the patient's room is essential to prevent the spread of infection and is a correct action. Bringing a snack to the patient from the unit refrigerator is appropriate and helps address potential issues with anorexia and weight loss in patients with TB. While hand washing after handling a tissue used by the patient is necessary, no special precautions are required when offering the patient an unused tissue.
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