Nursing Elites

1. A patient is admitted to the emergency department complaining of sudden onset shortness of breath and is diagnosed with a possible pulmonary embolus. How should the nurse prepare the patient for diagnostic testing to confirm the diagnosis?

• A. Start an IV so contrast media may be given
• B. Ensure that the patient has been NPO for at least 6 hours.
• C. Inform radiology that a radioactive glucose preparation is needed
• D. Instruct the patient to undress to the waist and remove any metal objects

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For diagnosing pulmonary emboli, spiral computed tomography (CT) scans are commonly used, and contrast media may be given intravenously (IV) during the scan to enhance visualization of blood vessels. Chest x-rays are not typically diagnostic for pulmonary embolism. When preparing for a chest x-ray, the patient needs to undress and remove any metal objects. Bronchoscopy is used for examining the bronchial tree, not for assessing vascular changes, and the patient should be NPO 6 to 12 hours before the procedure. Positron emission tomography (PET) scans are primarily used to detect malignancies, and a radioactive glucose preparation is utilized for this purpose.

2. The nurse is preparing to care for a child with a diagnosis of intussusception. The nurse reviews the child's record and expects to note which sign of this disorder documented?

• A. Watery diarrhea
• B. Ribbon-like stools
• C. Profuse projectile vomiting
• D. Bright red blood and mucus in the stools

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Intussusception is a condition where a part of the bowel slides into the next section, causing an obstruction. The classic presentation includes severe abdominal pain that is crampy, intermittent, and may cause the child to draw knees to the chest. While vomiting can occur, it is not typically projectile in nature. A key hallmark of intussusception is the passage of bright red blood and mucus in the stools, often described as currant jelly-like. Watery diarrhea and ribbon-like stools are not typical signs of intussusception and should not be expected in a child with this condition.

3. A patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of primary hyperparathyroidism. A nurse checking the patient's lab results would expect which of the following changes in laboratory findings?

• A. Elevated serum calcium
• B. Low serum parathyroid hormone (PTH)
• C. Elevated serum vitamin D
• D. Low urine calcium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In primary hyperparathyroidism, there is excess secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH) leading to increased resorption of calcium from bones and decreased excretion of calcium by the kidneys. This results in elevated serum calcium levels. Elevated serum calcium is a hallmark characteristic of primary hyperparathyroidism, making it the correct answer. Low serum parathyroid hormone (PTH) (Choice B) is incorrect because primary hyperparathyroidism is associated with elevated PTH levels due to the malfunction of the parathyroid glands. Elevated serum vitamin D (Choice C) is incorrect because primary hyperparathyroidism is not typically associated with elevated vitamin D levels. Low urine calcium (Choice D) is incorrect as primary hyperparathyroidism leads to decreased calcium excretion by the kidneys, resulting in high levels of calcium in the urine.

4. A patient who was admitted the previous day with pneumonia complains of a sharp pain of 7 (based on a 0 to 10 scale) whenever taking a deep breath. Which action will the nurse take next?

• A. Auscultate breath sounds.
• B. Administer PRN morphine.
• C. Have the patient cough forcefully.
• D. Notify the patient's healthcare provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patient's complaint of sharp pain when taking a deep breath is concerning for pleurisy or pleural effusion. The nurse should auscultate breath sounds to assess for a pleural friction rub or decreased breath sounds, which could indicate these conditions. It is crucial to gather assessment data before initiating any pain medications. Asking the patient to cough forcefully may exacerbate the pain and should be avoided until further assessment. Contacting the healthcare provider should be based on the assessment findings; therefore, it is premature to notify the provider without conducting a thorough assessment first.

5. A patient with leukemia is receiving chemotherapy that is known to depress bone marrow. A CBC (complete blood count) reveals a platelet count of 25,000/microliter. Which of the following actions related specifically to the platelet count should be included in the nursing care plan?

• A. Monitor for fever every 4 hours.
• B. Require visitors to wear respiratory masks and protective clothing.
• C. Consider transfusion of packed red blood cells.
• D. Check for signs of bleeding, including examination of urine and stool for blood.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A platelet count of 25,000/microliter indicates severe thrombocytopenia, which increases the risk of bleeding. It is crucial to initiate bleeding precautions, including regularly checking for signs of bleeding such as examining urine and stool for blood. Monitoring for fever every 4 hours (Choice A) should be included for neutropenic precautions, not specifically related to platelet count. Requiring visitors to wear respiratory masks and protective clothing (Choice B) is more relevant for patients with airborne precautions. Considering transfusion of packed red blood cells (Choice C) is not indicated for low platelet count but is more appropriate for managing anemia or low hemoglobin levels.

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