Nursing Elites

1. A patient is receiving a 3% saline continuous IV infusion for hyponatremia. Which assessment data will require the most rapid response by the nurse?

• A. The patient’s radial pulse is 105 beats/minute.
• B. There is sediment and blood in the patient’s urine.
• C. The blood pressure increases from 120/80 to 142/94.
• D. There are crackles audible throughout both lung fields.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Crackles throughout both lungs suggest that the patient may be experiencing pulmonary edema, a life-threatening adverse effect of hypertonic solutions. The increased pulse rate and blood pressure and the presence of sediment and blood in the urine should also be reported, but they are not as immediately dangerous as the presence of fluid in the alveoli, which compromises gas exchange and can lead to respiratory failure.

2. A patient who is taking a potassium-wasting diuretic for the treatment of hypertension complains of generalized weakness. It is most appropriate for the nurse to take which action?

• A. Assess for facial muscle spasms.
• B. Ask the patient about loose stools.
• C. Suggest that the patient avoid orange juice with meals.
• D. Ask the healthcare provider to order a basic metabolic panel.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Generalized weakness is a sign of hypokalemia, a potential side effect of potassium-wasting diuretics. By requesting a basic metabolic panel, the nurse can assess the patient's potassium levels. Facial muscle spasms are associated with hypocalcemia, not hypokalemia. Advising the patient to avoid orange juice, which is high in potassium, would be counterproductive if the patient is hypokalemic. Loose stools are typically seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia.

3. When caring for a patient with renal failure on a low phosphate diet, the nurse will inform unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to remove which food from the patient’s food tray?

• A. Grape juice
• B. Milk carton
• C. Mixed green salad
• D. Fried chicken breast

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Milk carton. Foods high in phosphate, like milk and other dairy products, are restricted on low-phosphate diets to manage renal failure. Green, leafy vegetables, high-fat foods, and fruits/juices are not high in phosphate and are not restricted. Therefore, grape juice, mixed green salad, and fried chicken breast do not need to be removed from the patient's food tray.

4. The nurse requests a meal tray for a client who follows Mormon beliefs and who is on a clear liquid diet following abdominal surgery. Which menu items should the nurse request for this client? (Select all that apply)

• A. apple juice
• B. black coffee
• C. orange juice
• D. hot chocolate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: apple juice. Clear liquids like apple juice and orange juice are suitable for a client following a clear liquid diet and Mormon beliefs. Options B and D, black coffee and hot chocolate, contain caffeine, which may not align with the client's religious dietary restrictions. Therefore, these options should be avoided for this client.

5. The nurse is preparing to send a client to the cardiac catheterization lab for an angioplasty. Which client report is most important for the nurse to explore further prior to the procedure?

• A. Experiences facial swelling after eating crab
• B. Reports left chest wall pain prior to the admission
• C. Verbalizes a fear of being in a confined space
• D. Drank a glass of water

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Allergy to shellfish can indicate a potential allergy to iodine, which is used in contrast dye for the procedure. This must be explored further to prevent an allergic reaction. Choice B is not directly related to the angioplasty procedure. Choice C pertains to claustrophobia, which can be addressed but is not directly related to the safety of the procedure. Choice D is a routine activity and does not pose a risk to the client during the procedure.

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