HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Quiz
1. A client with a history of calcium phosphate urinary stones is being taught by a nurse. Which statements should the nurse include in this client’s dietary teaching? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Limit your intake of food high in animal protein.
 - B. Read food labels to help minimize your sodium intake.
 - C. A and B
 - D. Reduce your intake of milk and other dairy products.
 
Correct answer: C
Rationale: For a client with a history of calcium phosphate urinary stones, it is essential to limit the intake of foods high in animal protein to prevent the formation of stones. Additionally, reducing sodium intake is crucial as high sodium levels can contribute to stone formation. Therefore, choices A and B are correct. Choice D, which suggests reducing intake of milk and other dairy products, is not specifically recommended for calcium phosphate stones. Clients with calcium phosphate stones should focus on limiting animal protein, sodium, and calcium intake. Choices A and B address these dietary modifications, making them the correct options for this client. Choices D, which is not directly related to calcium phosphate stones, is incorrect.
2. After a lumbar puncture, into which position does the nurse assist the client?
- A. Flat
 - B. Semi-Fowler
 - C. Side-lying with the head of the bed elevated
 - D. Sitting up in a recliner with the feet elevated
 
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After a lumbar puncture, the client should be positioned flat. This position helps prevent post-procedure spinal headaches and cerebrospinal fluid leakage. Keeping the client flat for up to 12 hours is crucial in minimizing these risks. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because elevating the head of the bed or sitting up can increase the risk of complications by altering the pressure in the spinal canal, potentially leading to headaches and fluid leakage.
3. When a young client being taught to use an inhaler for asthma symptoms states the intention to use the inhaler but plans to continue smoking cigarettes, what is the best initial action by the nurse?
- A. Inform the healthcare provider of the client's statement.
 - B. Explain that denial of illness can interfere with the treatment regimen.
 - C. Revise the plan of care based on the client's plans to continue smoking.
 - D. Review factors surrounding the client's beliefs about smoking cessation.
 
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best initial action by the nurse when a client expresses plans to use an inhaler for asthma symptoms but continue smoking cigarettes is to address denial. By explaining that denial of illness can interfere with the treatment regimen, the nurse educates the client about the impact of smoking on asthma treatment. This approach helps the client understand the importance of smoking cessation in managing asthma symptoms. Informing the healthcare provider (Choice A) may be necessary but is not the initial action in this scenario. Revising the plan of care (Choice C) should be considered after addressing the client's denial and educating them. Reviewing factors surrounding the client's beliefs about smoking cessation (Choice D) is relevant but not the best initial action when denial is identified.
4. A postmenopausal client asks the nurse why she is experiencing discomfort during intercourse. What response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. Estrogen deficiency causes the vaginal tissues to become dry and thinner.
 - B. Infrequent intercourse results in the vaginal tissues losing their elasticity.
 - C. Dehydration from inadequate fluid intake causes vulva tissue dryness.
 - D. Lack of adequate stimulation is the most common reason for dyspareunia.
 
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Estrogen deficiency in postmenopausal clients leads to a decrease in the moisture-secreting capacity of vaginal cells. This results in vaginal tissues becoming thinner, drier, and smoother, which reduces vaginal stretching and contributes to discomfort during intercourse. Choice B is incorrect because the primary reason for discomfort is not infrequent intercourse but rather physiological changes due to estrogen deficiency. Choice C is incorrect as dehydration may cause dryness but is not the primary reason for discomfort in this scenario. Choice D is incorrect as lack of stimulation is not the most common reason for dyspareunia in postmenopausal clients; estrogen deficiency is the key factor.
5. The patient is beginning furosemide and has started a 2-week course of a steroid medication. What should the nurse recommend?
- A. Avoid consuming licorice to prevent excess potassium loss.
 - B. Report a urine output less than 600 mL/24 hours.
 - C. Obtain an order for a potassium supplement.
 - D. Take the furosemide in the morning.
 
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient is taking furosemide and a steroid medication, there is an increased risk of potassium loss due to the interaction between the two drugs. Consuming licorice should be avoided as it can worsen potassium loss. Reporting a urine output less than 600 mL/24 hours is not directly related to the drug interaction and may not be necessary. Taking furosemide at bedtime is not the primary concern when a patient is concurrently on a steroid medication and furosemide. Therefore, obtaining an order for a potassium supplement is the most appropriate recommendation to counteract the potential potassium loss.
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