Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of calcium phosphate urinary stones is being taught by a nurse. Which statements should the nurse include in this client’s dietary teaching? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Limit your intake of food high in animal protein.
• B. Read food labels to help minimize your sodium intake.
• C. A and B
• D. Reduce your intake of milk and other dairy products.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a client with a history of calcium phosphate urinary stones, it is essential to limit the intake of foods high in animal protein to prevent the formation of stones. Additionally, reducing sodium intake is crucial as high sodium levels can contribute to stone formation. Therefore, choices A and B are correct. Choice D, which suggests reducing intake of milk and other dairy products, is not specifically recommended for calcium phosphate stones. Clients with calcium phosphate stones should focus on limiting animal protein, sodium, and calcium intake. Choices A and B address these dietary modifications, making them the correct options for this client. Choices D, which is not directly related to calcium phosphate stones, is incorrect.

2. The patient is beginning furosemide and has started a 2-week course of a steroid medication. What should the nurse recommend?

• A. Avoid consuming licorice to prevent excess potassium loss.
• B. Report a urine output less than 600 mL/24 hours.
• C. Obtain an order for a potassium supplement.
• D. Take the furosemide in the morning.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is taking furosemide and a steroid medication, there is an increased risk of potassium loss due to the interaction between the two drugs. Consuming licorice should be avoided as it can worsen potassium loss. Reporting a urine output less than 600 mL/24 hours is not directly related to the drug interaction and may not be necessary. Taking furosemide at bedtime is not the primary concern when a patient is concurrently on a steroid medication and furosemide. Therefore, obtaining an order for a potassium supplement is the most appropriate recommendation to counteract the potential potassium loss.

3. A nurse cares for adult clients who experience urge incontinence. For which client should the nurse plan a habit training program?

• A. A 78-year-old female who is confused
• B. A 65-year-old male with diabetes mellitus
• C. A 52-year-old female with kidney failure
• D. A 47-year-old male with arthritis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For a bladder training program to succeed in a client with urge incontinence, the client must be alert, aware, and able to resist the urge to urinate. Habit training will work best for a confused client. This includes going to the bathroom (or being assisted to the bathroom) at set times. The other clients may benefit from other types of bladder training. A confused client may need structured assistance to establish a regular bathroom routine, which can help manage urge incontinence effectively. Clients with diabetes mellitus, kidney failure, or arthritis may require different strategies tailored to their specific conditions.

4. The client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is taught to take isophane insulin suspension NPH (Humulin N) at 5 PM each day. The client should be instructed that the greatest risk of hypoglycemia will occur at about what time?

• A. 11 AM, shortly before lunch.
• B. 1 PM, shortly after lunch.
• C. 6 PM, shortly after dinner.
• D. 1 AM, while sleeping.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 1 AM, while sleeping. Isophane insulin suspension NPH (Humulin N) peaks around 6-8 hours after administration, which increases the risk of hypoglycemia during the night. Choice A, 11 AM, shortly before lunch, is incorrect because the peak effect of NPH insulin occurs much later. Choice B, 1 PM, shortly after lunch, is incorrect as it is too early for the peak effect of NPH insulin. Choice C, 6 PM, shortly after dinner, is also incorrect because the peak risk of hypoglycemia with NPH insulin occurs later in the night.

5. The healthcare professional is reviewing a patient’s chart prior to administering gentamicin (Garamycin) and notes that the last serum peak drug level was 9 mcg/mL and the last trough level was 2 mcg/mL. What action will the healthcare professional take?

• A. Administer the next dose as prescribed.
• B. Obtain repeat peak and trough levels before administering the next dose.
• C. Report potential drug toxicity to the patient’s healthcare provider.
• D. Notify the patient’s healthcare provider of decreased drug therapeutic level.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Gentamicin peak levels should ideally be between 5 to 8 mcg/mL, and trough levels should be within the range of 0.5 to 2 mcg/mL to ensure therapeutic efficacy while minimizing toxicity risk. In this case, the patient's peak level is above the recommended range, and the trough level is at the higher end, indicating potential drug toxicity. Therefore, the correct action for the healthcare professional is to report the possibility of drug toxicity to the patient’s healthcare provider. Administering the next dose as prescribed (Choice A) would exacerbate the toxicity risk. Obtaining repeat peak and trough levels (Choice B) may confirm the current levels but does not address the immediate concern of potential toxicity. Reporting a decreased drug therapeutic level (Choice D) is not the priority in this scenario, as the focus should be on addressing the potential toxicity issue.

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