Nursing Elites

1. A nurse manager conducts evaluations with each staff member and reviews the staffing needs for the upcoming year. Which of the following best describes the behavior this manager is engaging in?

• A. Interpersonal activities
• B. Decisional activities
• C. Informational activities
• D. Transformational activities

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decisional activities. A nurse manager conducting evaluations and reviewing staffing needs for the future involves making decisions related to resource allocation, planning, and problem-solving. These activities fall under the category of decisional activities in management. Choice A, Interpersonal activities, would involve activities like communicating, motivating, and leading staff. Choice C, Informational activities, would involve activities like gathering and disseminating information. Choice D, Transformational activities, would involve inspiring and motivating staff to achieve organizational goals through vision and change.

2. Which of the following ethical principles is involved when a healthcare provider allows a patient to refuse treatment?

• A. Autonomy
• B. Nonmaleficence
• C. Beneficence
• D. Justice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Autonomy. Autonomy is the ethical principle that respects an individual's right to make their own decisions, including the right to refuse treatment. This principle acknowledges the patient's self-governance and independence in making choices about their own healthcare. Choice B, Nonmaleficence, refers to the ethical principle of doing no harm and ensuring patient safety. Choice C, Beneficence, involves promoting the patient's well-being and acting in their best interest. Choice D, Justice, pertains to fairness and equitable distribution of healthcare resources.

3. A client with hyperparathyroidism is at risk for which of the following complications?

• A. Hypocalcemia
• B. Osteoporosis
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client with hyperparathyroidism is at risk for osteoporosis, not hypocalcemia, hypokalemia, or hyponatremia. Hyperparathyroidism results in increased levels of parathyroid hormone, which causes excessive breakdown of bone tissue to release calcium into the bloodstream. This process can lead to weakened bones and an increased risk of osteoporosis. Hypocalcemia is unlikely in hyperparathyroidism as the condition is characterized by elevated calcium levels due to the abnormal activity of the parathyroid glands. Hypokalemia and hyponatremia are not directly associated with hyperparathyroidism; they are more commonly linked to other conditions affecting potassium and sodium levels in the body.

4. The client with type 2 DM is learning to manage blood glucose levels. When should the client monitor blood glucose?

• A. Only when feeling unwell.
• B. Only before meals.
• C. Before meals and at bedtime.
• D. Only after meals.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor blood glucose before meals and at bedtime. This timing allows the client to assess fasting levels and make informed decisions about mealtime insulin or medication doses. Monitoring only when feeling unwell (choice A) is not sufficient for proper glucose management as it may miss important trends. Monitoring only before meals (choice B) is helpful but does not provide a complete picture of the client's glucose control throughout the day. Monitoring only after meals (choice D) is less beneficial than monitoring before meals as it does not capture fasting levels. Therefore, monitoring before meals and at bedtime (choice C) is the most comprehensive approach to maintain good glucose control and prevent complications.

5. A client with DM visits the health care clinic. The client's diabetes has been well controlled with glyburide (Diabeta), 5 mg PO daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose has been running 180-200 mg/dl. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?

• A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• B. Prednisone (Deltasone)
• C. Phenelzine (Nardil)
• D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause hyperglycemia by increasing glucose production in the liver. Atenolol (Choice A) is a beta-blocker that typically does not affect blood glucose levels significantly. Phenelzine (Choice C) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used for depression and does not directly impact blood glucose levels. Allopurinol (Choice D) is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used to manage gout and does not contribute to hyperglycemia.

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