a nurse knows that which of these patients are at greatest risk for a stroke

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers

1. Which of the following patients is at the greatest risk for a stroke?

A. A 60-year-old male who weighs 270 pounds, has atrial fibrillation, and has had a TIA in the past
B. A 75-year-old male who has frequent migraines, drinks a glass of wine every day, and is Hispanic
C. A 40-year-old female who has high cholesterol and uses oral contraceptives
D. A 65-year-old female who is African American, has sickle cell disease, and smokes cigarettes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the 60-year-old male who has a combination of significant risk factors for stroke, including atrial fibrillation, a history of a transient ischemic attack (TIA), and obesity. These factors greatly increase his risk of stroke. While other choices may have some individual risk factors, they do not collectively pose as high a risk as the patient described in option A. Option B includes migraines and alcohol consumption but lacks other major risk factors seen in option A. Option C mentions high cholesterol and oral contraceptives, which are risk factors but not as significant as atrial fibrillation and a prior TIA. Option D includes smoking and sickle cell disease but lacks the crucial risk factors present in option A.

2. Which fact about diabetes is true?

A. Only children get type 1 diabetes.
B. Only adults get type 2 diabetes.
C. Children and adults can have type 1 diabetes.
D. Both A and B

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that children and adults can have type 1 diabetes. Although type 1 diabetes is sometimes known as 'childhood diabetes,' it can affect individuals of any age. Type 1 diabetes is not limited to children. While type 2 diabetes is often associated with adults, children can also develop it, especially due to factors like obesity. Choices A and B are incorrect because diabetes is not exclusive to either children or adults; both types of diabetes can affect individuals across different age groups.

3. Following a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) in their 6-year-old child, the parent remarks, 'We just don't know how he caught the disease!' The nurse's response is based on an understanding that

A. AGN is a streptococcal infection that involves the kidney tubules
B. The disease is easily transmissible in schools and camps
C. The illness is usually associated with chronic respiratory infections
D. It is not 'caught' but is a response to a previous B-hemolytic strep infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) is generally considered an immune-complex disease in response to a previous B-hemolytic streptococcal infection, typically occurring 4 to 6 weeks prior. It is not an infectious disease but a noninfectious renal condition. Therefore, the parent's belief that the child 'caught' the disease is inaccurate. Choice A is incorrect because AGN is not a direct streptococcal infection involving the kidney tubules but an immune response to a prior streptococcal infection. Choice B is incorrect as AGN is not easily transmissible in schools and camps. Choice C is incorrect as AGN is not usually associated with chronic respiratory infections but with a previous streptococcal infection.

4. The nurse assesses a patient suspected of having meningitis. Which of the following is a common clinical manifestation of this condition?

A. A high WBC count and decreased level of consciousness
B. A high WBC count and manic activity
C. A low WBC count and manic activity
D. A low WBC count and decreased level of consciousness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'A high WBC count and decreased level of consciousness.' Meningitis is often caused by an infectious organism, leading to an increase in Intracranial Pressure (ICP), which can result in decreased level of consciousness. While meningitis can trigger an inflammatory response, it typically presents with an elevated white blood cell (WBC) count rather than a low WBC count. Manic activity is not a common clinical manifestation of meningitis; instead, patients may exhibit altered mental status, confusion, or lethargy.

5. While receiving normal saline infusions to treat a GI bleed, the nurse notes that the patient's lower legs have become edematous and auscultates crackles in the lungs. What should the nurse do first?

A. Stop the saline infusion immediately
B. Notify the physician
C. Elevate the patient's legs
D. Continue the infusion, as these findings are normal

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to stop the saline infusion immediately. The patient is showing signs of fluid volume overload due to rapid fluid replacement, indicated by lower leg edema and lung crackles. Continuing the infusion could worsen the overload and potentially lead to complications. Notifying the physician is important but should come after stopping the infusion to address the immediate issue. Elevating the patient's legs may help with edema but is not the priority in this situation. Continuing the infusion when the patient is already showing signs of fluid overload is contraindicated and can be harmful.