NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. Which of the following patients is at the greatest risk for a stroke?
- A. A 60-year-old male who weighs 270 pounds, has atrial fibrillation, and has had a TIA in the past
- B. A 75-year-old male who has frequent migraines, drinks a glass of wine every day, and is Hispanic
- C. A 40-year-old female who has high cholesterol and uses oral contraceptives
- D. A 65-year-old female who is African American, has sickle cell disease, and smokes cigarettes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the 60-year-old male who has a combination of significant risk factors for stroke, including atrial fibrillation, a history of a transient ischemic attack (TIA), and obesity. These factors greatly increase his risk of stroke. While other choices may have some individual risk factors, they do not collectively pose as high a risk as the patient described in option A. Option B includes migraines and alcohol consumption but lacks other major risk factors seen in option A. Option C mentions high cholesterol and oral contraceptives, which are risk factors but not as significant as atrial fibrillation and a prior TIA. Option D includes smoking and sickle cell disease but lacks the crucial risk factors present in option A.
2. A client is found unresponsive in his room by a nurse. The client is not breathing and does not have a pulse. After calling for help, what is the next action the nurse should take?
- A. Administer 2 ventilations
- B. Perform a head-tilt, chin lift to open the airway
- C. Begin chest compressions
- D. Perform a jaw thrust to open the airway
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After finding an unresponsive client who is not breathing and has no pulse, the nurse's immediate action should be to call for help and start chest compressions. Chest compressions should be initiated at a rate of at least 100 per minute and a depth of at least 2 inches. Choice A, administering ventilations, is not the initial step as compressions take priority. Choice B, performing a head-tilt, chin lift, is also not the first step; chest compressions are crucial before airway management. Choice D, performing a jaw thrust, is typically used in cases of suspected cervical spine injury and is not the immediate action in this scenario.
3. The nurse is preparing to care for an infant who has esophageal atresia with tracheoesophageal fistula. Surgery is scheduled to be performed in 1 hour. Intravenous fluids have been initiated, and a nasogastric (NG) tube has been inserted by the primary healthcare provider. The nurse plans care, knowing that which intervention is of highest priority during this preoperative period?
- A. Monitor the temperature.
- B. Monitor the blood pressure.
- C. Reposition the infant frequently.
- D. Aspirate the NG tube every 5 to 10 minutes.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Esophageal atresia with tracheoesophageal fistula is a critical neonatal surgical emergency. The highest priority intervention during the preoperative period is to aspirate the NG tube every 5 to 10 minutes to keep the proximal pouch clear of secretions and prevent aspiration. This is crucial in reducing the risk of gastric secretions entering the lungs. Repositioning the infant frequently is not as critical as ensuring the NG tube is aspirated. Monitoring the temperature and blood pressure are important nursing interventions but are not the highest priority in this situation. It is essential to prioritize airway protection and prevent aspiration in this neonate undergoing urgent surgical intervention.
4. A diabetic patient's arterial blood gas (ABG) results are pH 7.28; PaCO2 34 mm Hg; PaO2 85 mm Hg; HCO3 18 mEq/L. The nurse would expect which finding?
- A. Intercostal retractions
- B. Kussmaul respirations
- C. Low oxygen saturation (SpO2)
- D. Decreased venous O2 pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Kussmaul respirations (deep and rapid) are a compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis. The low pH and low bicarbonate levels indicate metabolic acidosis. Intercostal retractions, low oxygen saturation, and decreased venous O2 pressure are not associated with acidosis. Intercostal retractions typically occur in respiratory distress, while low oxygen saturation and decreased venous O2 pressure are more related to respiratory or circulatory issues, not metabolic acidosis.
5. The nurse is creating a plan of care for a 10-year-old child diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Promoting bed rest
- B. Restricting oral fluids
- C. Allowing the child to play
- D. Encouraging visits from friends
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During the acute phase of glomerulonephritis, promoting bed rest is a priority to reduce stress on the kidneys and promote recovery. As the condition improves, activity can be gradually increased. Restricting oral fluids is not recommended as maintaining adequate hydration is crucial. Allowing the child to play quietly can be beneficial but is not the priority over rest during the acute phase. Encouraging visits from friends may disrupt the rest needed for recovery, so visitors should be limited.
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