NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. Which of the following patients is at the greatest risk for a stroke?
- A. A 60-year-old male who weighs 270 pounds, has atrial fibrillation, and has had a TIA in the past
- B. A 75-year-old male who has frequent migraines, drinks a glass of wine every day, and is Hispanic
- C. A 40-year-old female who has high cholesterol and uses oral contraceptives
- D. A 65-year-old female who is African American, has sickle cell disease, and smokes cigarettes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the 60-year-old male who has a combination of significant risk factors for stroke, including atrial fibrillation, a history of a transient ischemic attack (TIA), and obesity. These factors greatly increase his risk of stroke. While other choices may have some individual risk factors, they do not collectively pose as high a risk as the patient described in option A. Option B includes migraines and alcohol consumption but lacks other major risk factors seen in option A. Option C mentions high cholesterol and oral contraceptives, which are risk factors but not as significant as atrial fibrillation and a prior TIA. Option D includes smoking and sickle cell disease but lacks the crucial risk factors present in option A.
2. Following surgery to correct cryptorchidism, what is the priority action that the nurse should include in the plan of care?
- A. Prevent tension on the suture.
- B. Monitor urine for glucose and acetone.
- C. Encourage oral fluids, and monitor intake and output.
- D. Encourage coughing and deep breathing every hour.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to prevent tension on the suture. After surgery for cryptorchidism, the testicle is held in position by an internal suture that should not be dislodged. Immobilization of the area for a week is crucial to prevent complications like bleeding and infection. Monitoring urine for glucose and acetone is unrelated to this surgery. While maintaining hydration is important, forcing fluids is not necessary. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing every hour may be a postoperative consideration, but it is not the priority for this specific surgery.
3. The nurse is planning discharge instructions for the mother of a child following orchiopexy, which was performed on an outpatient basis. Which is a priority in the plan of care?
- A. Wound care
- B. Pain control measures
- C. Measurement of intake
- D. Cold and heat applications
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Following orchiopexy, the priority in the plan of care for the child's mother is wound care. The most common complications associated with orchiopexy are bleeding and infection. Discharge instructions should focus on demonstrating wound cleansing and dressing, and teaching parents to recognize signs of infection like redness, warmth, swelling, or discharge. It is crucial to prevent movement of the testicles and avoid contamination of the suture line. While analgesics may be prescribed, pain control measures are not the priority among the options presented. Measurement of intake is not essential as the child is likely to resume normal eating habits. Cold and heat applications are not typical prescribed treatments for post-orchiopexy care.
4. Which topic is most important to include in patient teaching for a 41-year-old patient diagnosed with early alcoholic cirrhosis?
- A. Maintaining good nutrition
- B. Avoiding alcohol ingestion
- C. Taking lactulose (Cephulac)
- D. Using vitamin B supplements
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important topic to include in patient teaching for a 41-year-old patient diagnosed with early alcoholic cirrhosis is avoiding alcohol ingestion. Alcohol abstinence is crucial in stopping or reversing the progression of the disease. While maintaining good nutrition, taking lactulose (Cephulac), and using vitamin B supplements are important interventions in managing cirrhosis, abstaining from alcohol is the priority for this patient to prevent further damage to the liver and halt disease progression.
5. The nurse is caring for a woman 2 hours after a vaginal delivery. Documentation indicates that the membranes were ruptured for 36 hours prior to delivery. What are the priority nursing diagnoses at this time?
- A. Altered tissue perfusion
- B. Risk for fluid volume deficit
- C. High risk for hemorrhage
- D. Risk for infection
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for infection.' When the membranes are ruptured for more than 24 hours prior to birth, there is a significantly increased risk of infection for both the mother and the newborn. Monitoring for signs of infection, such as fever, foul-smelling vaginal discharge, and uterine tenderness, is crucial. Option A, 'Altered tissue perfusion,' is not the priority in this scenario as infection risk takes precedence due to the prolonged rupture of membranes. Option B, 'Risk for fluid volume deficit,' is less of a priority compared to the immediate risk of infection. Option C, 'High risk for hemorrhage,' is not the priority concern at this time based on the information provided.
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