the nurse provided discharge instructions to the parents of a 2 year old child who had an orchiopexy to correct cryptorchidism which statement by the
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NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers

1. The parents of a 2-year-old child who had an orchiopexy to correct cryptorchidism are provided with discharge instructions by the nurse. Which statement by the parents indicates the need for further instruction?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cryptorchidism is a condition where one or both testes fail to descend into the scrotal sac. Orchiopexy, a surgical correction, may be required. After surgery, it is crucial to restrict vigorous activities for 2 weeks to promote healing and prevent injury. Allowing the child to decide when to return to play activities may lead to delayed healing and increased risk of injury, as 2-year-olds typically want to be active. Checking the child's temperature, administering analgesics as needed, and monitoring urine output are important postoperative care measures to ensure recovery and detect complications early. Therefore, the statement indicating the need for further instruction is the one related to letting the child decide when to resume play activities.

2. A mother brings her 5-week-old infant to the health care clinic and tells the nurse that the child has been vomiting after meals. The mother reports that the vomiting is becoming more frequent and forceful. The nurse suspects pyloric stenosis and asks the mother which assessment question to elicit data specific to this condition?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Vomiting undigested food that is not bile stained and constipation are classic symptoms of pyloric stenosis. Stools that are ribbon-like and a child who is eating poorly are signs of congenital megacolon (Hirschsprung's disease). An infant who suddenly becomes pale, cries out, and draws the legs up to the chest is demonstrating physical signs of intussusception. Crying during the evening hours, appearing to be in pain, eating well, and gaining weight are clinical manifestations of colic.

3. The nurse is preparing to care for a child with a diagnosis of intussusception. The nurse reviews the child's record and expects to note which sign of this disorder documented?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Intussusception is a condition where a part of the bowel slides into the next section, causing an obstruction. The classic presentation includes severe abdominal pain that is crampy, intermittent, and may cause the child to draw knees to the chest. While vomiting can occur, it is not typically projectile in nature. A key hallmark of intussusception is the passage of bright red blood and mucus in the stools, often described as currant jelly-like. Watery diarrhea and ribbon-like stools are not typical signs of intussusception and should not be expected in a child with this condition.

4. A newborn infant in the nursery has developed vomiting, poor feeding, lethargy, and respiratory distress, and has been diagnosed with necrotizing enterocolitis. Which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate for this infant?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) is a serious condition characterized by ischemic bowel, leading to gastrointestinal symptoms, lethargy, poor feeding, and respiratory distress. In the management of NEC, it is crucial to stop oral feedings, insert a nasogastric tube for decompression, and administer antibiotics as prescribed by the physician. Therefore, the most appropriate nursing intervention for an infant with NEC is to administer antibiotics as ordered. Choice A, feeding the infant sterile water, is incorrect because oral feedings should be stopped in NEC. Choice B, positioning the infant on his back, is not directly related to the treatment of NEC. Choice D, allowing the infant to breastfeed, is contraindicated in NEC as oral feedings should be ceased to prevent further complications.

5. A patient has been taking mood stabilizing medication but is afraid of needles. They ask the nurse what medication would NOT require regular lab testing. What is the nurse's best response?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Risperidone (Risperdal) because it is the only medication among the options that does not require regular lab testing. Risperidone is not associated with the need for routine blood draws to monitor medication levels or potential side effects. Choices A, B, and C (Valproic Acid, Clozapine, Lithium) are all known to require frequent lab monitoring due to various reasons such as potential toxicity, therapeutic drug levels, or adverse effects on certain organ functions. Therefore, considering the patient's fear of needles and the desire to avoid frequent blood tests, Risperidone would be the most suitable option.

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