Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reinforcing teaching to transition from breastfeeding to whole milk with the parents of an infant. Which of the following months of age should the nurse recommend for transitioning the infant to whole milk?

• A. 6 months
• B. 8 months
• C. 10 months
• D. 12 months

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 12 months. Whole milk should be introduced at 12 months to ensure the infant's digestive system can handle the increased fat content. Introducing whole milk before 12 months can lead to digestive issues and potential allergies. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because transitioning to whole milk before 12 months is not recommended for infants due to their digestive system still developing and not being able to handle the higher fat content of whole milk.

2. During a physical assessment on a client who just had an endotracheal tube inserted, which finding would call for immediate action by the nurse?

• A. Breath sounds are auscultated bilaterally
• B. Mist is visible in the T-Piece
• C. Pulse oximetry of 88%
• D. Client is unable to speak

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A pulse oximetry reading of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which requires immediate intervention to ensure adequate oxygenation. In this scenario, the priority is to address the low oxygen saturation to prevent further complications. Auscultation of bilateral breath sounds is a positive finding as it indicates air entry into both lungs. Mist in the T-piece is expected in clients with an endotracheal tube, and the inability to speak is common due to the tube's placement.

3. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is admitted with chest pain. Which of these findings would be most concerning to the nurse?

• A. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg
• B. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute
• C. Heart rate of 72 beats per minute
• D. Temperature of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute may indicate respiratory distress in a client with chest pain. In a client with a history of coronary artery disease presenting with chest pain, signs of respiratory distress can be an alarming finding. Blood pressure within the normal range (130/80 mm Hg), heart rate of 72 beats per minute, and a temperature of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit are generally considered within normal limits and may not be as concerning in this context.

4. A client is diagnosed with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus pneumonia. What type of isolation is most appropriate for this client?

• A. Reverse
• B. Airborne
• C. Standard precautions
• D. Contact

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Contact.' Contact precautions are necessary for clients with MRSA pneumonia to prevent the spread of the resistant bacteria. MRSA is primarily spread by direct contact, so using contact precautions, such as wearing gloves and gowns, is essential. Choice A, 'Reverse,' is not a type of isolation precaution. Choice B, 'Airborne,' is not the appropriate isolation for MRSA pneumonia, as MRSA is not transmitted through the airborne route. Choice C, 'Standard precautions,' are important for all clients, but for MRSA pneumonia specifically, contact precautions are more targeted and necessary.

5. When a client is receiving external beam radiation to the mediastinum for treatment of bronchial cancer, which of the following should take priority in planning care?

• A. Esophagitis
• B. Leukopenia
• C. Fatigue
• D. Skin irritation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Leukopenia should take priority in planning care for a client receiving external beam radiation to the mediastinum for bronchial cancer because it is a serious side effect that increases the risk of infection. Monitoring leukopenia is crucial to prevent complications. Esophagitis, fatigue, and skin irritation are also potential side effects of radiation therapy, but leukopenia poses a higher risk of life-threatening infections, requiring immediate attention.

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