Nursing Elites

1. A client is learning how to mix regular insulin and NPH insulin in the same syringe. Which action, if performed by the client, indicates the need for further teaching?

• A. Withdraws the NPH insulin first
• B. Withdraws the regular insulin first
• C. Injects air into the NPH insulin vial first
• D. Injects an amount of air equal to the desired dose of insulin into the vial

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When mixing regular insulin with another insulin preparation, it is crucial to withdraw the regular insulin first to prevent contamination. NPH insulin should be drawn after the regular insulin to maintain the integrity of each insulin type. Therefore, if the client withdraws the NPH insulin first, it indicates the need for further teaching. Choice B is correct as withdrawing regular insulin first is the appropriate step. Choice C is incorrect as air should be injected into the vial containing the regular insulin to maintain pressure. Choice D is incorrect as injecting air equal to the desired dose of insulin into the vial is a correct step in preparing the insulin for withdrawal.

2. A nurse reinforces discharge instructions to a postoperative client who is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin). Which statement, if made by the client, reflects the need for further teaching?

• A. I will take my pills every day at the same time.
• B. I will be certain to avoid alcohol consumption.
• C. I have already called my family to pick up a Medic-Alert bracelet.
• D. I will take Ecotrin (enteric-coated aspirin) for my headaches because it is coated.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ecotrin is an aspirin-containing product and should be avoided. Clients should avoid alcohol consumption, take prescribed medication at the same time each day, and use a Medic-Alert bracelet for emergency information.

3. A client is taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control, and a sample for a serum drug level is drawn. Which of the following indicates a therapeutic serum drug range?

• A. 5 to 10 mcg/mL
• B. 10 to 20 mcg/mL
• C. 20 to 30 mcg/mL
• D. 30 to 40 mcg/mL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct therapeutic serum drug level range for phenytoin (Dilantin) is 10 to 20 mcg/mL. This range is considered optimal for seizure control while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Monitoring drug levels helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for effective treatment.

4. A client has just taken a dose of trimethobenzamide (Tigan). The nurse plans to monitor this client for relief of:

• A. Heartburn
• B. Constipation
• C. Abdominal pain
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Nausea and vomiting. Trimethobenzamide (Tigan) is an antiemetic medication used to treat nausea and vomiting. Therefore, the nurse would monitor the client for relief of nausea and vomiting after taking this medication.

5. A postoperative client has received a dose of naloxone hydrochloride for respiratory depression shortly after transfer to the nursing unit from the postanesthesia care unit. After administration of the medication, the nurse checks the client for:

• A. Pupillary changes
• B. Scattered lung wheezes
• C. Sudden increase in pain
• D. Sudden episodes of diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Naloxone hydrochloride is an antidote to opioids and may be administered to postoperative clients to address respiratory depression. This medication can also reverse the effects of analgesics, potentially leading to a sudden increase in pain. Therefore, the nurse must assess the client for any unexpected rise in pain levels after naloxone administration. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because pupillary changes, scattered lung wheezes, and sudden episodes of diarrhea are not typically associated with naloxone administration for respiratory depression.

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