HESI RN
HESI Nutrition Practice Exam
1. A nurse is providing care to a primigravida whose membranes spontaneously ruptured (ROM) 4 hours ago. Labor is to be induced. At the time of the ROM the vital signs were T-99.8 degrees F, P-84, R-20, BP-130/78, and fetal heart tones (FHT) 148 beats/min. Which assessment findings taken now may be an early indication that the client is developing a complication of labor?
- A. FHT 168 beats/min
- B. Temperature 100 degrees Fahrenheit
- C. Cervical dilation of 4 cm
- D. BP 138/88
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Fetal heart rate elevation can indicate distress, making it an early sign of labor complications. Choices B, C, and D are not the best answers in this scenario. Choice B, an elevated temperature, could indicate infection but is not a direct sign of labor complications. Choice C, cervical dilation of 4 cm, is a normal part of labor progression for a primigravida. Choice D, a blood pressure of 138/88, falls within normal limits and is not an early indication of labor complications.
2. A client has been diagnosed with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Which information is most important for the nurse to reinforce with the client?
- A. It is a condition in which one or more tumors, called gastrinomas, form in the pancreas or in the upper part of the small intestine (duodenum).
- B. It is critical to promptly report any findings of peptic ulcers to your health care provider.
- C. Treatment consists of medications to reduce acid and heal any peptic ulcers and, if possible, surgery to remove any tumors.
- D. The average age at diagnosis is 50 years, and peptic ulcers may occur in unusual areas of the stomach or intestine.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Prompt reporting of peptic ulcers is crucial in managing Zollinger-Ellison syndrome to prevent complications and guide treatment. While choices A, C, and D provide relevant information about the condition and its treatment, the most important aspect in the client's care is the prompt reporting of peptic ulcers. This is because untreated peptic ulcers in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome can lead to serious complications such as gastrointestinal bleeding or perforation. Therefore, ensuring timely communication with the healthcare provider is essential for effective management of the condition.
3. The nurse is instructing a 65-year-old female client diagnosed with osteoporosis. The most important instruction regarding exercise would be to
- A. Exercise by doing weight-bearing activities
- B. Exercise to reduce weight
- C. Avoid exercise activities that increase the risk of fracture
- D. Exercise to strengthen muscles and thereby protect bones
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important instruction for a 65-year-old female client diagnosed with osteoporosis regarding exercise is to engage in weight-bearing activities. Weight-bearing exercises are crucial in maintaining bone density and preventing osteoporosis-related fractures. Choice B is incorrect because the primary focus should be on bone health rather than weight reduction. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding all exercise activities that increase the risk of fracture would limit physical activity, which is essential for overall health. Choice D is incorrect as while strengthening muscles is beneficial, weight-bearing activities directly impact bone health in osteoporosis.
4. A nurse is assisting with the development of an education program for a community group about intake of vitamins and minerals in the diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend as the best source of vitamin C?
- A. ½ cup green pepper
- B. 1 medium orange
- C. ½ cup cabbage
- D. 1 medium tomato
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 1 medium orange. Oranges are well-known for being rich in vitamin C, an essential nutrient for immune function and skin health. While choices A, C, and D also contain some vitamin C, the medium orange provides a higher amount of this vitamin compared to a ½ cup of green pepper, ½ cup of cabbage, or a medium tomato.
5. The nurse assesses a 72-year-old client who was admitted for right-sided congestive heart failure. Which of the following would the nurse anticipate finding?
- A. Decreased urinary output
- B. Jugular vein distention
- C. Pleural effusion
- D. Bibasilar crackles
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In right-sided congestive heart failure, the nurse would anticipate finding jugular vein distention. This occurs due to increased venous pressure, leading to the distention of the jugular veins in the neck. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Decreased urinary output is not typically associated with right-sided heart failure; pleural effusion and bibasilar crackles are more commonly seen in conditions like left-sided heart failure.
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