Nursing Elites

1. When orally administering alendronate (Fosamax), a bisphosphonate drug, to a largely bed-bound patient being treated for osteoporosis, what is the most important nursing consideration?

• A. Sit the head of the bed up for 30 minutes after administration
• B. Give the patient a small amount of water to drink
• C. Feed the patient soon, at most 10 minutes after administration
• D. Assess the patient for back pain or abdominal pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct nursing consideration when administering bisphosphonates like alendronate is to sit the head of the bed up for 30 minutes after administration. Bisphosphonates are known to cause esophageal irritation, which can lead to esophagitis. By sitting upright, the patient reduces the time the medication spends in the esophagus, decreasing the risk of irritation and potential adverse effects. Giving the patient water to drink or feeding them immediately after administration can increase the risk of esophageal irritation. Assessing the patient for back pain or abdominal pain is important but not the most critical consideration during drug administration.

2. A systolic blood pressure of 145 mm Hg is classified as:

• A. Normotensive
• B. Prehypertension
• C. Stage I hypertension
• D. Stage II hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A systolic blood pressure of 145 mm Hg falls within the range of 140-159 mm Hg, which is classified as Stage I hypertension. Normotensive individuals have a systolic blood pressure less than 120 mm Hg, making choice A incorrect. Prehypertension is characterized by a systolic blood pressure ranging from 120-139 mm Hg, excluding choice B. Stage II hypertension is diagnosed when the systolic blood pressure is greater than 160 mm Hg, making choice D incorrect. Therefore, the correct classification for a systolic blood pressure of 145 mm Hg is Stage I hypertension.

3. When assessing a patient who has just arrived after an automobile accident, the emergency department nurse notes tachycardia and absent breath sounds over the right lung. For which intervention will the nurse prepare the patient?

• A. Emergency pericardiocentesis
• B. Stabilization of the chest wall with tape
• C. Administration of an inhaled bronchodilator
• D. Insertion of a chest tube with a chest drainage system

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The patient's history and absent breath sounds suggest a right-sided pneumothorax or hemothorax, which will require treatment with a chest tube and drainage. Emergency pericardiocentesis is not indicated as the patient's symptoms are not suggestive of cardiac tamponade. Stabilization of the chest wall with tape would not address the underlying issue of a potential pneumothorax or hemothorax. Administration of an inhaled bronchodilator is not appropriate in this scenario as the patient is not exhibiting signs of asthma or bronchoconstriction. Therefore, the correct intervention for this patient is the insertion of a chest tube with a chest drainage system to address the potential pneumothorax or hemothorax.

4. What is a priority problem for a child with severe edema caused by nephrotic syndrome?

• A. Risk for constipation
• B. Risk for skin breakdown
• C. Inability to regulate body temperature
• D. Consuming more calories or nutrients than the body requires

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In nephrotic syndrome, characterized by massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema, a child with severe edema is at high risk for skin breakdown. The priority concern is to prevent skin breakdown by cleaning skin surfaces and ensuring adequate separation with clothing to avoid irritation. The child with nephrotic syndrome is typically anorexic, making consuming more calories or nutrients than necessary not a concern. Risk for constipation and inability to regulate body temperature are not primary issues associated with edema caused by nephrotic syndrome.

5. A nurse admits a 3-week-old infant to the special care nursery with a diagnosis of bronchopulmonary dysplasia. As the nurse reviews the birth history, which data would be most consistent with this diagnosis?

• A. Gestational age assessment suggested growth retardation
• B. Meconium was cleared from the airway at delivery
• C. Phototherapy was used to treat Rh incompatibility
• D. The infant received mechanical ventilation for 2 weeks

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'The infant received mechanical ventilation for 2 weeks.' Bronchopulmonary dysplasia is a condition primarily caused by therapies like positive-pressure ventilation used in the treatment of lung disease. This leads to lung damage and subsequent respiratory problems. Choices A, B, and C are not consistent with the diagnosis of bronchopulmonary dysplasia. Gestational age assessment suggesting growth retardation is more indicative of intrauterine growth restriction, clearing meconium from the airway at delivery is related to potential respiratory issues at birth, and phototherapy for Rh incompatibility is unrelated to bronchopulmonary dysplasia.

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