Nursing Elites

1. A newborn is having difficulty maintaining a temperature above 98 degrees Fahrenheit and has been placed in a warming isolette. Which action is a nursing priority?

• A. Protect the neonate's eyes from the heat lamp
• B. Monitor the neonate's temperature
• C. Warm all medications and liquids before administration
• D. Avoid touching the neonate with cold hands

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a newborn is placed in a warming isolette due to difficulty maintaining temperature, the priority action is to continuously monitor the neonate's temperature to prevent overheating. Using heat lamps is unsafe as their temperature cannot be regulated, potentially causing harm. Warming medications and fluids before administration is not necessary in this situation. While touching the neonate with cold hands may startle them, it does not pose a safety risk compared to monitoring and controlling the temperature.

2. A patient admitted to the hospital with myocardial infarction develops severe pulmonary edema. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse expect the patient to exhibit?

• A. Slow, deep respirations
• B. Stridor
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Air hunger

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a patient with pulmonary edema following a myocardial infarction, the nurse should expect symptoms such as air hunger, anxiety, and agitation. Air hunger refers to the feeling of needing to breathe more deeply or more often. Other symptoms of pulmonary edema can include coughing up blood or bloody froth, orthopnea (difficulty breathing when lying down), and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (sudden awakening with shortness of breath). Slow, deep respirations (Choice A) are not typical in pulmonary edema; these patients often exhibit rapid, shallow breathing due to the difficulty in oxygen exchange. Stridor (Choice B) is a high-pitched breathing sound often associated with upper airway obstruction, not typically seen in pulmonary edema. Bradycardia (Choice C), a slow heart rate, is not a characteristic symptom of pulmonary edema, which is more likely to be associated with tachycardia due to the body's compensatory response to hypoxia and increased workload on the heart.

3. The nurse is reviewing the record of a child diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome. The nurse should expect to note which finding documented in the child's record?

• A. Polyuria
• B. Weight gain
• C. Hypotension
• D. Grossly bloody urine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In nephrotic syndrome, a key finding documented in the child's record is weight gain due to massive edema. While urine may appear dark, foamy, and frothy, grossly bloody urine is not expected as only microscopic hematuria is present. Additionally, urine output is decreased, and hypertension is likely to be present. Therefore, the correct answer is weight gain as it aligns with the characteristic presentation of nephrotic syndrome.

4. The nurse is caring for a patient who has recently had a successful catheter ablation. Which assessment finding demonstrates a successful outcome of this procedure?

• A. The patient is free of electrolyte imbalances
• B. The patient's WBC count is within normal limits
• C. The patient's EKG reading is regular
• D. The patient's urine output is 45 mL/hour

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A successful outcome of a catheter ablation procedure for arrhythmias, particularly SVT, is indicated by a regular EKG reading. Catheter ablation involves the use of radiofrequency energy to destroy the conduction fiber in the heart responsible for the arrhythmia. This destruction helps in preventing further episodes of arrhythmia. While choices A, B, and D are important assessments in patient care, they are not specific indicators of the success of a catheter ablation procedure. Electrolyte imbalances, WBC count, and urine output can be affected by various factors and are not directly related to the effectiveness of a catheter ablation in treating arrhythmias.

5. The parents of a newborn with a cleft lip are concerned and ask the nurse when the lip will be repaired. With which statement should the nurse respond?

• A. Cleft lip cannot be repaired.
• B. Cleft-lip repair is usually performed by 6 months of age.
• C. Cleft-lip repair is usually performed during the first months of life.
• D. Cleft-lip repair is usually performed between 6 months and 2 years.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cleft-lip repair is typically performed during the first few months of life to address functional and cosmetic concerns at an early stage. Early repair can enhance bonding and facilitate feeding. While revisions may be necessary later on, addressing the cleft lip early is essential. Option A is incorrect as cleft lip repair is a common surgical procedure. Option B is incorrect as repair is typically done earlier than 6 months for better outcomes. Option D is incorrect as the usual timing for repair is within the first months of life, not between 6 months and 2 years.

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