Nursing Elites

1. A client receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy should have which of the following laboratory results reviewed to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC).
• B. Prothrombin time (PT).
• C. International normalized ratio (INR).
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is the most appropriate laboratory result to review when evaluating the effectiveness of warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication, and the INR helps determine if the dosage is within a therapeutic range to prevent clotting or bleeding complications. Choice A, a Complete Blood Count (CBC), provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the anticoagulant effects of warfarin. Choice B, Prothrombin time (PT), measures the time it takes for blood to clot but is not as specific for monitoring warfarin therapy as the INR. Choice D, Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT), evaluates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not the primary test used to monitor warfarin therapy.

2. The nurse is preparing to administer trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) to a patient who is being treated for a urinary tract infection. The nurse learns that the patient has type 2 diabetes mellitus and takes a sulfonylurea oral antidiabetic drug. The nurse will monitor this patient closely for which effect?

• A. Headaches
• B. Hypertension
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Superinfection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient takes oral antidiabetic agents (sulfonylurea) along with sulfonamides like trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, it can lead to an increased hypoglycemic effect. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the patient closely for hypoglycemia. Headaches, hypertension, and superinfection are not typically associated with the interaction between sulfonamides and sulfonylureas. Examples of antidiabetic sulfonylurea medications include glipizide, glimepiride, glyburide, tolazamide, and tolbutamide.

3. A client who has developed acute kidney injury (AKI) due to an aminoglycoside antibiotic has moved from the oliguric phase to the diuretic phase of AKI. Which parameters are most important for the nurse to plan to carefully monitor?

• A. Side effects of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) and Intralipids.
• B. Uremic irritation of mucous membranes and skin surfaces.
• C. Elevated creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN).
• D. Hypovolemia and electrocardiographic (ECG) changes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the diuretic phase of acute kidney injury (AKI), monitoring for hypovolemia and electrocardiographic (ECG) changes is crucial. Hypovolemia can occur due to the increased urine output in this phase, potentially leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Electrolyte imbalances can result in ECG changes, such as arrhythmias, which can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful monitoring of fluid status and ECG findings helps in preventing complications. Choices A, B, and C are not the most crucial parameters to monitor during the diuretic phase of AKI. Side effects of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) and Intralipids, uremic irritation of mucous membranes and skin surfaces, and elevated creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) are important considerations in other phases of AKI or in other conditions, but they are not the primary focus during the diuretic phase when hypovolemia and ECG changes take precedence.

4. A client is being taught about self-catheterization in the home setting. Which statements should the nurse include in this client’s teaching? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Wash your hands before and after self-catheterization.
• B. Use lubricant on the tip of the catheter before insertion.
• C. A & B
• D. Self-catheterize at least twice a day or every 12 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In teaching a client about self-catheterization, it is essential to emphasize proper hand hygiene before and after the procedure to prevent infections. Using lubricant on the catheter helps with insertion and reduces discomfort. Therefore, statements A and B are correct and should be included in the client's teaching. Option D is incorrect because self-catheterization frequency should be individualized based on the client's needs, and a specific time frame like every 12 hours may not be suitable for everyone. Choosing a smaller lumen catheter is preferred over a larger one. Self-catheterization should not be limited to a specific time frame but should be based on the individual's needs and voiding patterns. Therefore, option C is the correct choice as it includes the two essential statements for teaching self-catheterization in the home setting.

5. Healthcare workers must protect themselves against becoming infected with HIV. The Center for Disease Control has issued guidelines for healthcare workers in relation to protection from HIV. These guidelines include which recommendation?

• A. Place HIV-positive clients in strict isolation and limit visitors.
• B. Wear gloves when coming in contact with the blood or body fluids of any client.
• C. Conduct mandatory HIV testing of those who work with clients with AIDS.
• D. Freeze HIV blood specimens at -70°F to kill the virus.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The CDC guidelines recommend that healthcare workers wear gloves when coming in contact with blood or body fluids from any client since HIV can be infectious before the client becomes aware of their exposure and/or symptomatic. Choice A is incorrect because placing HIV-positive clients in strict isolation and limiting visitors is not a standard practice for HIV infection control. Choice C is incorrect as mandatory HIV testing for those working with AIDS clients is not a CDC recommendation for routine infection control. Choice D is incorrect because freezing HIV blood specimens at -70°F does not kill the virus; HIV can remain infectious even at very low temperatures.

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