HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. A client receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy should have which of the following laboratory results reviewed to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Complete blood count (CBC).
- B. Prothrombin time (PT).
- C. International normalized ratio (INR).
- D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT).
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is the most appropriate laboratory result to review when evaluating the effectiveness of warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication, and the INR helps determine if the dosage is within a therapeutic range to prevent clotting or bleeding complications. Choice A, a Complete Blood Count (CBC), provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the anticoagulant effects of warfarin. Choice B, Prothrombin time (PT), measures the time it takes for blood to clot but is not as specific for monitoring warfarin therapy as the INR. Choice D, Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT), evaluates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not the primary test used to monitor warfarin therapy.
2. A client who is experiencing respiratory distress is admitted with respiratory acidosis. Which pathophysiological process supports the client's respiratory acidosis?
- A. Carbon dioxide is converted in the kidneys for elimination.
- B. Blood oxygen levels are stimulating the respiratory rate.
- C. Hyperventilation is eliminating carbon dioxide rapidly.
- D. High levels of carbon dioxide have accumulated in the blood.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. High levels of carbon dioxide in the blood are indicative of respiratory acidosis, often due to inadequate ventilation. In respiratory acidosis, there is retention of carbon dioxide (hypercapnia) leading to an increase in carbonic acid levels in the blood, resulting in an acidic pH. Option A is incorrect because carbon dioxide elimination primarily occurs through the lungs, not the kidneys. Option B is incorrect because blood oxygen levels primarily affect the respiratory rate to regulate oxygen levels, not carbon dioxide levels. Option C is incorrect because hyperventilation would lead to a decrease, not an increase, in carbon dioxide levels.
3. A client is admitted with acute kidney injury (AKI) and a urine output of 2000 mL/day. What is the major concern of the nurse regarding this client’s care?
- A. Edema and pain
- B. Electrolyte and fluid imbalance
- C. Cardiac and respiratory status
- D. Mental health status
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The major concern for a client admitted with acute kidney injury (AKI) and a high urine output of 2000 mL/day is electrolyte and fluid imbalance. In AKI, there may be an inflammatory cause leading to proteins entering the glomerulus, resulting in fluid being held in the filtrate and causing polyuria. Electrolyte loss and fluid balance are critical to monitor and manage in AKI cases. Edema and pain are not typically associated with fluid loss. While changes in cardiac, respiratory, and mental health status can occur if electrolyte imbalance is not addressed, the primary focus should be on managing electrolyte and fluid balance to prevent further complications.
4. After teaching a client with renal cancer who is prescribed temsirolimus (Torisel), the nurse assesses the client’s understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will take this medication with food and plenty of water.
- B. I shall keep my appointment at the infusion center each week.
- C. I’ll limit my intake of green leafy vegetables while on this medication.
- D. I must not take this medication if I have an infection or am feeling ill.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Temsirolimus, also known as Torisel, is administered as a weekly intravenous infusion. This medication blocks protein needed for cell division, inhibiting cell cycle progression. It is not taken orally, so there is no need to take it with food or water. Keeping the weekly infusion center appointment is crucial for the client to receive the prescribed treatment effectively. Choice A is incorrect as temsirolimus is not taken with food or water. Choice C is incorrect because there is no need to limit the intake of green leafy vegetables while on this medication. Choice D is incorrect as having an infection or feeling ill does not prohibit the use of temsirolimus.
5. The client has been managing angina episodes with nitroglycerin. Which of the following indicates the drug is effective?
- A. Decreased chest pain.
- B. Increased blood pressure.
- C. Decreased blood pressure.
- D. Decreased heart rate.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased chest pain. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that works by decreasing myocardial oxygen consumption, which helps to reduce chest pain caused by angina. Therefore, a reduction in chest pain is a positive indicator of the drug's effectiveness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because nitroglycerin does not typically increase blood pressure or heart rate; instead, it often causes a decrease in blood pressure due to vasodilation and may cause a reflex tachycardia (increased heart rate) as a compensatory response to lowered blood pressure.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access