HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. A client receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy should have which of the following laboratory results reviewed to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Complete blood count (CBC).
- B. Prothrombin time (PT).
- C. International normalized ratio (INR).
- D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT).
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is the most appropriate laboratory result to review when evaluating the effectiveness of warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication, and the INR helps determine if the dosage is within a therapeutic range to prevent clotting or bleeding complications. Choice A, a Complete Blood Count (CBC), provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the anticoagulant effects of warfarin. Choice B, Prothrombin time (PT), measures the time it takes for blood to clot but is not as specific for monitoring warfarin therapy as the INR. Choice D, Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT), evaluates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not the primary test used to monitor warfarin therapy.
2. A client who has received sodium bicarbonate in large amounts is at risk for metabolic alkalosis. For which of the following signs and symptoms does the nurse assess this client?
- A. Disorientation and dyspnea
- B. Drowsiness, headache, and tachypnea
- C. Tachypnea, dizziness, and paresthesias
- D. Dysrhythmias and decreased respiratory rate and depth
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A client with metabolic alkalosis may present with dysrhythmias and a decreased respiratory rate and depth as the body tries to compensate by retaining carbon dioxide. Options A, B, and C do not typically correlate with the signs and symptoms of metabolic alkalosis. Disorientation, dyspnea, drowsiness, headache, tachypnea, dizziness, and paresthesias are not commonly associated with metabolic alkalosis. Therefore, they are incorrect choices.
3. The nurse is preparing to administer clarithromycin to a patient. When performing a medication history, the nurse learns that the patient takes warfarin to treat atrial fibrillation. The nurse will perform which action?
- A. Ask the provider if azithromycin may be used instead of clarithromycin.
- B. Obtain an order for continuous cardiovascular monitoring.
- C. Request an order for periodic serum warfarin levels.
- D. Withhold the clarithromycin and notify the provider.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient taking warfarin also needs to receive clarithromycin, it is essential to monitor periodic serum warfarin levels. Macrolides, including clarithromycin, can increase serum levels of drugs like warfarin. Monitoring serum drug levels helps ensure that the patient's warfarin dose can be adjusted, if necessary, to maintain therapeutic levels. Asking about using azithromycin instead is not the most appropriate action in this situation, as all macrolides can interact with warfarin. Continuous cardiovascular monitoring is not indicated solely based on the use of clarithromycin. Withholding the clarithromycin without proper assessment could delay necessary treatment and is not the best initial action.
4. A nursing student is suctioning a client through a tracheostomy tube while a nurse observes. Which action by the student would prompt the nurse to intervene and demonstrate the correct procedure? Select all that apply.
- A. Setting the suction pressure to 60 mm Hg
- B. Applying suction throughout the procedure
- C. Assessing breath sounds before suctioning
- D. Placing the client in a supine position before the procedure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct suction pressure for an adult client with a tracheostomy tube is typically between 80 to 120 mm Hg. Suction should be applied intermittently during catheter withdrawal to avoid damaging the airway. Assessing breath sounds before suctioning is important to ensure the procedure is necessary. Placing the client in a supine position before suctioning can compromise their airway; instead, the head of the bed should be elevated to facilitate proper drainage and reduce the risk of aspiration. Therefore, setting the suction pressure to 60 mm Hg is incorrect and would prompt the nurse to intervene and correct the procedure.
5. What is the most important content for the nurse to include in discharge teaching for a 51-year-old truck driver who smokes two packs of cigarettes a day, is 30 pounds overweight, and has been diagnosed with a gastric ulcer?
- A. Information about smoking cessation.
- B. Diet instructions for a low-residue diet.
- C. Instructions on a weight-loss program.
- D. The importance of increasing milk in the diet.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Information about smoking cessation. Smoking is a significant risk factor for ulcer formation. It is crucial for the nurse to include smoking cessation information in the discharge teaching to help manage the gastric ulcer and prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are less relevant in this scenario. While diet modifications may be beneficial, addressing smoking cessation takes precedence due to its direct correlation with ulcer development.
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