Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a 2-day-old infant who has a bilirubin level of 19 mg/dl. The physician has ordered phototherapy. Which of the following actions indicates correct preparation of the infant for this procedure?

• A. Undress the baby down to a diaper and hat
• B. Place the baby in his mother's arms before turning on the light
• C. Position the phototherapy light approximately 3 inches above the baby's skin
• D. Secure eye protection for the infant without occluding the nose

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Phototherapy is used to treat high levels of bilirubin among infants, typically evidenced as jaundice. The nurse must position the infant carefully during this procedure to maximize the benefits of the light therapy while protecting the baby. Placing protective eyewear over the baby's eyes without covering the nose is crucial to shield the eyes from the ultraviolet light. Undressing the baby down to a diaper and hat (Choice A) is a standard practice to maximize skin exposure to the phototherapy light. Placing the baby in his mother's arms before turning on the light (Choice B) is not necessary for the preparation of the infant for phototherapy. Positioning the phototherapy light approximately 3 inches above the baby's skin (Choice C) is incorrect as the distance should be as recommended by the healthcare provider based on the manufacturer's instructions.

2. A 33-year-old male client with heart failure has been taking furosemide for the past week. Which of the following assessment cues below may indicate the client is experiencing a negative side effect from the medication?

• A. Weight gain of 5 pounds
• B. Edema of the ankles
• C. Gastric irritability
• D. Decreased appetite

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Decreased appetite.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic used for conditions like heart failure, where it helps reduce fluid retention. One common side effect of furosemide is hypokalemia, which can lead to decreased appetite among other symptoms. Hypokalemia is a low level of potassium in the blood, and its signs and symptoms include anorexia, fatigue, nausea, decreased GI motility, muscle weakness, dysrhythmias, reduced urine osmolality, and altered level of consciousness. Weight gain and ankle edema are actually expected outcomes of furosemide therapy due to its diuretic effect, which helps reduce edema and fluid overload. Gastric irritability is a nonspecific symptom that is not typically associated with furosemide use. Therefore, a decreased appetite is a key indicator of a potential negative side effect when assessing a client on furosemide therapy.

3. The nurse palpates the posterior chest while the patient says 99 and notes absent fremitus. What action should the nurse take next?

• A. Auscultate anterior and posterior breath sounds bilaterally
• B. Encourage the patient to turn, cough, and deep breathe
• C. Review the chest x-ray report for evidence of pneumonia
• D. Palpate the anterior chest and observe for barrel chest

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To assess for tactile fremitus, the nurse should use the palms of the hands to assess for vibration when the patient repeats a word or phrase such as '99'. After noting absent fremitus, the nurse should then auscultate the lungs to assess for the presence or absence of breath sounds. Absent fremitus may be noted with conditions like pneumothorax or atelectasis. The vibration is increased in conditions such as pneumonia, lung tumors, thick bronchial secretions, and pleural effusion. Encouraging the patient to turn, cough, and deep breathe is an appropriate intervention for atelectasis, but assessing breath sounds takes priority. Fremitus is decreased if the hand is farther from the lung or the lung is hyperinflated (barrel chest). Palpating the anterior chest for fremitus is less effective due to the presence of large muscles and breast tissue, making auscultation a more appropriate next step.

4. Which of these findings indicate that a pump to deliver a basal rate of 10 ml per hour plus PRN for pain breakthrough for a morphine drip is not working?

• A. The client complains of discomfort at the IV insertion site
• B. The client states 'I just can't get relief from my pain.'
• C. The level of the drug is 100 ml at 8 AM and is 80 ml at noon
• D. The level of the drug is 100 ml at 8 AM and is 50 ml at noon

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that the level of the drug is 100 ml at 8 AM and is 80 ml at noon. With a basal rate of 10 mL per hour, a total of 40 mL should have been infused by noon, leaving only 60 mL in the container. Any amount greater than 60 mL at noon indicates that the pump is not functioning properly. Therefore, the finding of 80 mL at noon suggests the pump is not delivering the expected medication volume. Choices A and B are related to the client's symptoms and may indicate the need for pain management assessment but do not specifically indicate pump malfunction. Choice D, where the level drops to 50 mL at noon, would actually indicate that the pump is working effectively, as the expected volume has been delivered.

5. You are responsible for reviewing the nursing unit's refrigerator. Which of the following drugs, if found inside the fridge, should be removed?

• A. Nadolol (Corgard)
• B. Opened (in-use) Humulin N injection
• C. Urokinase (Kinlytic)
• D. Epoetin alfa IV (Epogen)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Nadolol (Corgard) should be removed if found inside the fridge because it is supposed to be stored at room temperature between 59 to 86 �F (15 and 30 �C) away from heat, moisture, and light. Storing it in the refrigerator can alter its effectiveness and stability. Option B, the opened Humulin N injection, should not be stored in the refrigerator as it is an in-use product and can remain at room temperature for a certain period as per manufacturer guidelines. Option C, Urokinase (Kinlytic), and Option D, Epoetin alfa IV (Epogen), do not require refrigeration and can be stored at room temperature. Therefore, Nadolol (Corgard) is the drug that should be removed from the fridge.

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