septic anaphylactic and neurogenic shock are all categorized as
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions

1. Septic, anaphylactic, and neurogenic shock are all categorized as:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Septic, anaphylactic, and neurogenic shock are all types of distributive shock. Distributive shock is characterized by a decrease in systemic vascular resistance, leading to poor tissue perfusion. Septic shock is caused by severe infection, anaphylactic shock is an extreme allergic reaction, and neurogenic shock results from damage to the nervous system. Hypovolemic shock (Choice A) is characterized by a decrease in intravascular volume, cardiogenic shock (Choice B) is due to heart failure, and obstructive shock (Choice D) results from obstruction of blood flow. Therefore, the correct categorization for septic, anaphylactic, and neurogenic shock is distributive shock.

2. When teaching the client with tuberculosis about follow-up home care, the nurse should emphasize that a laboratory appointment for which of the following lab tests is critical?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should emphasize the importance of monitoring liver function tests in clients taking INH due to the risk of hepatocellular injury and hepatitis associated with this medication. Regular assessment of liver enzymes can help detect liver damage early. Monitoring kidney function, blood sugar levels, or cardiac enzymes is not specifically required for clients taking INH and tuberculosis treatment.

3. A child is diagnosed with a Greenstick Fracture. Which of the following most accurately describes the broken bone?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A Greenstick Fracture is commonly found in children due to their bones being more flexible. This type of fracture occurs when a bone bends and partially breaks, resembling what happens when a green stick from a tree is bent in half. Therefore, the most accurate description of a Greenstick Fracture is 'a partial break in a long bone.' Choice A, 'compound fracture of the fibula,' is incorrect as a Greenstick Fracture is not a compound fracture. Choice C, 'fracture of the growth plate of the ulna near the wrist,' is incorrect as it describes a different type of fracture. Choice D, 'Colles fracture of the tibia,' is incorrect as it refers to a specific type of fracture in a different bone.

4. The healthcare provider calculates the IV flow rate for a patient receiving lactated Ringer's solution. The patient needs to receive 2000mL of Lactated Ringer's over 36 hours. The IV infusion set has a drop factor of 15 drops per milliliter. How many drops per minute should the healthcare provider set the IV to deliver?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To determine the drops per minute, we use the formula Drops Per Minute = (Milliliters x Drop Factor) / Time in Minutes. In this case, Drops Per Minute = (2000mL x 15 drops/mL) / (36 hours x 60 minutes/hour) = 30000 / 2160 = 13.89 (approximately 14). Therefore, the correct answer is 14 drops per minute. Choice A (8), Choice B (10), and Choice D (18) are incorrect as they do not correctly calculate the drops per minute based on the given information.

5. A client is found unresponsive in his room by a nurse. The client is not breathing and does not have a pulse. After calling for help, what is the next action the nurse should take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After finding an unresponsive client who is not breathing and has no pulse, the nurse's immediate action should be to call for help and start chest compressions. Chest compressions should be initiated at a rate of at least 100 per minute and a depth of at least 2 inches. Choice A, administering ventilations, is not the initial step as compressions take priority. Choice B, performing a head-tilt, chin lift, is also not the first step; chest compressions are crucial before airway management. Choice D, performing a jaw thrust, is typically used in cases of suspected cervical spine injury and is not the immediate action in this scenario.

Similar Questions

The healthcare provider is managing a 20 lbs (9 kg) 6-month-old with a 3-day history of diarrhea, occasional vomiting, and fever. Peripheral intravenous therapy has been initiated, with 5% dextrose in 0.33% normal saline with 20 mEq of potassium per liter infusing at 35 ml/hr. Which finding should be immediately reported to the healthcare provider?
The nurse palpates the posterior chest while the patient says 99 and notes absent fremitus. What action should the nurse take next?
A patient who has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) was hospitalized for increasing shortness of breath and chronic hypoxemia (SaO2 levels of 89% to 90%). In planning for discharge, which action by the nurse will be most effective in improving compliance with discharge teaching?
A patient is scheduled for a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan for suspected lung cancer. Which of the following is a contraindication to the study for this patient?
A man is prescribed lithium to treat bipolar disorder. The nurse is most concerned about lithium toxicity when he notices which of these assessment findings?

Access More Features

NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses