a mother brings her 2 month old son to the clinic for a well baby exam during the assessment the nurse finds that the right testicle is not descended
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Pediatric Practice Exam

1. During a well-baby exam, a nurse finds that a 2-month-old's right testicle is not descended into the scrotum, but the left one is palpable. What should the nurse do?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to ask if the right testis has been seen in the scrotum before. The initial step in managing an undescended testicle is to determine if it has been previously observed in the scrotum or if this is a new finding. This information is crucial in deciding the next course of action. Choice B is incorrect because addressing future fertility concerns comes after confirming the status of the testicle. Choice C is unnecessary at this stage as the first step is to gather more history. Choice D is unrelated to the issue described and is not indicated in this scenario.

2. The healthcare provider is caring for a 6-year-old child diagnosed with glomerulonephritis. Which finding should the healthcare provider report promptly to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypertension is a serious complication of glomerulonephritis, as it can lead to further renal damage. A blood pressure reading of 150/95 mm Hg is elevated and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for immediate management to prevent complications. Dark-colored urine can be a common symptom of glomerulonephritis due to blood in the urine but is not as urgent as managing hypertension. Mild periorbital edema can also be seen in glomerulonephritis but is not as concerning as elevated blood pressure. Urine output of 250 mL in 24 hours indicates oliguria, which is a concern, but addressing hypertension takes priority to prevent further renal damage.

3. A 6 year old who has asthma is demonstrating a prolonged expiratory phase and wheezing and has a 35% of personal best peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR). Based on these findings, what actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator will help open the airways and improve breathing.

4. When developing a behavior modification program for an extremely aggressive 10-year-old boy, what should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The first step in developing a behavior modification program for an extremely aggressive 10-year-old boy is to identify what activities, foods, and toys the child enjoys. Understanding the child's motivations is crucial in creating an effective behavior modification plan tailored to his interests and preferences, which can help in positively reinforcing desired behaviors.

5. A child with Graves' disease who is taking propranolol (Inderal) is seen in the clinic. The nurse should monitor the child for which therapeutic response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a child with Graves' disease is prescribed propranolol (Inderal), the nurse should monitor for a decreased heart rate as a therapeutic response. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that acts to slow down the heart rate, which is beneficial in managing the symptoms of Graves' disease, such as tachycardia and other cardiovascular manifestations. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because propranolol is not typically associated with increased weight gain, reduced headaches, or diminished fatigue as its primary therapeutic effect in this context.

Similar Questions

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