a mother brings her 2 month old son to the clinic for a well baby exam during the assessment the nurse finds that the right testicle is not descended
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Pediatric Practice Exam

1. During a well-baby exam, a nurse finds that a 2-month-old's right testicle is not descended into the scrotum, but the left one is palpable. What should the nurse do?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to ask if the right testis has been seen in the scrotum before. The initial step in managing an undescended testicle is to determine if it has been previously observed in the scrotum or if this is a new finding. This information is crucial in deciding the next course of action. Choice B is incorrect because addressing future fertility concerns comes after confirming the status of the testicle. Choice C is unnecessary at this stage as the first step is to gather more history. Choice D is unrelated to the issue described and is not indicated in this scenario.

2. A 2-year-old child with heart failure (HF) is admitted for replacement of a graft for coarctation of the aorta. Prior to administering the next dose of digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse obtains an apical heart rate of 128 bpm. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the scheduled dose is appropriate in this scenario. The nurse obtained an apical heart rate of 128 bpm, which is within the expected range for a 2-year-old child. Therefore, there is no immediate concern to withhold the scheduled dose of digoxin. Determining the pulse deficit is not necessary as the heart rate is appropriate. Calculating the safe dose range is not needed as the current dose is within the therapeutic range. Reviewing the serum digoxin level may be indicated later for monitoring but is not urgent based on the heart rate assessment. Administering the scheduled dose of digoxin is the correct action at this time.

3. A 7-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with nephrotic syndrome. The nurse notes that the child has gained 3 pounds in the past 24 hours. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a child with nephrotic syndrome experiencing sudden weight gain, the priority action for the nurse is to notify the healthcare provider. This weight gain could indicate worsening edema or fluid retention, necessitating immediate medical evaluation and intervention. The healthcare provider can conduct a comprehensive assessment, order necessary tests, and adjust the treatment plan accordingly. Administering a diuretic, restricting fluid intake, or measuring abdominal girth should not be initiated without healthcare provider consultation to ensure appropriate management of the child's condition.

4. A 12-year-old male is brought to the clinic after falling during a skateboarding trick. The child's vital signs are heart rate 135 beats/minute, respirations 20 breaths/minute, and blood pressure 90/60. Which finding should the practical nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the 12-year-old male with a heart rate of 135 beats/minute, respirations of 20 breaths/minute, and blood pressure of 90/60 after falling during a skateboarding trick exhibits signs of shock. Weak and rapid peripheral pulses are concerning as they may indicate decreased cardiac output and tissue perfusion, which are signs of shock. This finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately for further evaluation and intervention to prevent potential complications. The other choices are less urgent. Complaints of back soreness (choice A) could be related to musculoskeletal injury. Capillary refill less than 2 seconds (choice B) is within the normal range, indicating adequate peripheral perfusion. A blood pressure of 94/68 (choice C) is slightly higher than the initial reading and may be compensatory in response to the fall and shock state.

5. A 6-year-old boy with bronchial asthma takes the beta-adrenergic agonist albuterol (Proventil). The child’s mother tells the nurse that she uses this medication to open her son’s airway when he is having trouble breathing. What is the nurse’s best response?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to assure the mother that she is using the medication correctly. Albuterol is a beta-adrenergic agonist that helps open the airways during an asthma attack. By reassuring the mother, the nurse reinforces the correct usage of the medication, which is crucial in managing the child's asthma symptoms effectively. Option A is incorrect because immediate evaluation may not be necessary if the child's symptoms are being managed effectively with albuterol. Option B is incorrect as chronic bronchitis is not typically associated with the overuse of albuterol. Option D is incorrect as albuterol primarily acts as a bronchodilator and does not directly reduce airway inflammation.

Similar Questions

What instructions should the nurse provide to the parents about the treatment of head lice in a 3-year-old boy who has been confirmed to have head lice?
The nurse is caring for a 15-year-old adolescent who is admitted with a diagnosis of bulimia nervosa. The adolescent’s vital signs are stable, but the nurse notes that the client has dry skin and appears thin. What is the nurse’s priority action?
When caring for a 5-year-old child with a history of seizures who suddenly begins to have a tonic-clonic seizure, what should the nurse do first?
What information should a nurse discuss with the mother of a 2-year-old girl who is drinking sweetened soda from her bottle?
Which statement by a school-aged client going to summer camp indicates the best understanding of the mode of transmission of Lyme disease?

Access More Features

HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses