a mother brings her 2 month old son to the clinic for a well baby exam during the assessment the nurse finds that the right testicle is not descended
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Pediatric Practice Exam

1. During a well-baby exam, a nurse finds that a 2-month-old's right testicle is not descended into the scrotum, but the left one is palpable. What should the nurse do?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to ask if the right testis has been seen in the scrotum before. The initial step in managing an undescended testicle is to determine if it has been previously observed in the scrotum or if this is a new finding. This information is crucial in deciding the next course of action. Choice B is incorrect because addressing future fertility concerns comes after confirming the status of the testicle. Choice C is unnecessary at this stage as the first step is to gather more history. Choice D is unrelated to the issue described and is not indicated in this scenario.

2. A 6-month-old female is scheduled to receive diphtheria, tetanus toxoid, and acellular pertussis vaccine (DTaP) and IPV (inactivated poliovirus vaccine) immunizations. She is recovering from a cold but is otherwise healthy and afebrile. Her 5-year-old sister is receiving chemotherapy. Which considerations should the nurse make for this situation?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: DTaP and IPV can be safely administered to a child with a mild illness like a cold, even if there is an immunocompromised family member, as these vaccines do not contain live viruses. It is important to ensure that the child is otherwise healthy and afebrile before administering the vaccines. The presence of a cold is not a contraindication for receiving DTaP and IPV vaccines. Choice A is correct because the infant can receive both vaccines as scheduled. Choice B is incorrect as having a cold does not contraindicate DTaP and IPV administration. Choice C is incorrect because IPV is not contraindicated due to the sister's immunocompromised status. Choice D is incorrect as both DTaP and IPV can be given in this scenario.

3. The nurse is measuring the frontal occipital circumference (FOC) of a 3-month-old infant and notes that the FOC has increased by 5 inches since birth, and the child's head appears large in relation to body size. Which action is most important for the nurse to take next?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Palpating the anterior fontanel for tension and bulging is crucial in assessing for increased intracranial pressure. In this scenario, the infant's large head size and rapid increase in the frontal occipital circumference raise concerns for potential issues such as hydrocephalus. Measuring the head-to-toe length (Choice A) is not the priority when assessing for increased intracranial pressure. Observing for sunken eyes (Choice C) is more indicative of dehydration rather than increased intracranial pressure. While plotting the measurement on the infant's growth chart (Choice D) is important for tracking growth, it does not address the immediate concern of assessing for increased intracranial pressure.

4. The healthcare provider plans to administer 10 mcg/kg of digoxin elixir as a loading dose to a child who weighs 55 pounds. Digoxin is available as an elixir of 50 mcg/ml. How many milliliters of the digoxin elixir should the healthcare provider administer to this child?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the dose, first, convert the child's weight to kilograms by dividing 55 pounds by 2.2, which equals approximately 25 kg. Then, multiply the weight by the dose (10 mcg/kg) to get the total dose needed, which is 250 mcg. Next, divide the total dose by the concentration of the elixir (50 mcg/ml) to determine the volume needed, which is 5 ml. Therefore, the correct dose is 5 ml based on the child's weight and the concentration of the elixir.

5. A 7-year-old child with type 1 diabetes is brought to the emergency department with abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. The nurse notes that the child's blood glucose level is 350 mg/dL. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a child with type 1 diabetes presenting with abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and a high blood glucose level, the priority is to administer IV fluids to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, which are crucial in managing diabetic ketoacidosis. Administering insulin without addressing fluid deficits can lead to further complications. While monitoring urine output and checking for ketones are important steps in the care of a child with diabetes, the immediate focus should be on correcting dehydration and electrolyte imbalances through IV fluid administration to stabilize the child's condition.

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