Nursing Elites

1. During a well-baby exam, a nurse finds that a 2-month-old's right testicle is not descended into the scrotum, but the left one is palpable. What should the nurse do?

• A. Ask if the right testis has been seen in the scrotum before
• B. Address potential concerns about future fertility
• C. Schedule an ultrasound to confirm the position of the testicle
• D. Prepare to obtain a urine specimen for culture

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to ask if the right testis has been seen in the scrotum before. The initial step in managing an undescended testicle is to determine if it has been previously observed in the scrotum or if this is a new finding. This information is crucial in deciding the next course of action. Choice B is incorrect because addressing future fertility concerns comes after confirming the status of the testicle. Choice C is unnecessary at this stage as the first step is to gather more history. Choice D is unrelated to the issue described and is not indicated in this scenario.

2. A 6 year old who has asthma is demonstrating a prolonged expiratory phase and wheezing and has a 35% of personal best peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR). Based on these findings, what actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer a prescribed bronchodilator.
• B. Encourage the child to cough and deep breath.
• C. Report findings to the health care provider.
• D. Determine what triggers precipitated this attack.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator will help open the airways and improve breathing.

3. The parents of a 3-year-old boy who has Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) ask, 'how can our son have this disease? We are wondering if we should have any more children.' What information should the nurse provide these parents?

• A. This is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family.
• B. The male infant had a viral infection that went unnoticed and untreated, leading to muscle damage.
• C. The lack of the protein dystrophin in the mother can impact the muscle groups of males.
• D. Damage to the spinal cord due to birth trauma from a breech vaginal birth weakens the muscles.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should inform the parents that Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family. This genetic condition is caused by a mutation in the dystrophin gene located on the X chromosome. Females are usually carriers of the gene mutation and may pass it on to their sons. Daughters of carrier mothers have a 50% chance of being carriers themselves. Understanding the genetics of DMD can help the parents make informed decisions about family planning and genetic counseling.

4. A 2-week-old female infant is hospitalized for the surgical repair of an umbilical hernia. After returning to the postoperative neonatal unit, her RR and HR have increased during the last hour. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of these findings
• B. Administer a PRN analgesic as prescribed
• C. Document the findings in the infant's medical record
• D. Comfort the infant by swaddling and gently rocking

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a postoperative neonatal setting, an increase in respiratory rate (RR) and heart rate (HR) in an infant could indicate pain or distress. It is crucial for the nurse to notify the healthcare provider promptly to assess the infant's condition and provide appropriate interventions. Prompt communication with the healthcare provider ensures timely evaluation and management of the infant's discomfort or distress, promoting optimal postoperative recovery and comfort. Administering analgesics without healthcare provider assessment could mask underlying issues, documenting findings alone does not address the immediate need for intervention, and comforting may not resolve the underlying cause of increased RR and HR.

5. A 9-year-old child with a history of type 1 diabetes is brought to the clinic for a check-up. The nurse notes that the child's hemoglobin A1c is 8.5%. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Increase the child’s insulin dose
• B. Review the child’s dietary habits and insulin administration technique
• C. Discuss the possibility of switching to oral hypoglycemics
• D. Schedule a follow-up appointment in three months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A hemoglobin A1c of 8.5% indicates suboptimal diabetes control. The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to review the child’s dietary habits and insulin administration technique. This approach can help identify potential areas for improvement and optimize diabetes management, aiming to lower the hemoglobin A1c levels towards the target range. Increasing the child’s insulin dose (Choice A) without addressing dietary habits and administration technique may not lead to better control and can increase the risk of hypoglycemia. Switching to oral hypoglycemics (Choice C) is not appropriate for type 1 diabetes management. Scheduling a follow-up appointment in three months (Choice D) without intervening to improve diabetes control is not the best immediate action.

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