Nursing Elites

1. During a well-baby exam, a nurse finds that a 2-month-old's right testicle is not descended into the scrotum, but the left one is palpable. What should the nurse do?

• A. Ask if the right testis has been seen in the scrotum before
• B. Address potential concerns about future fertility
• C. Schedule an ultrasound to confirm the position of the testicle
• D. Prepare to obtain a urine specimen for culture

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to ask if the right testis has been seen in the scrotum before. The initial step in managing an undescended testicle is to determine if it has been previously observed in the scrotum or if this is a new finding. This information is crucial in deciding the next course of action. Choice B is incorrect because addressing future fertility concerns comes after confirming the status of the testicle. Choice C is unnecessary at this stage as the first step is to gather more history. Choice D is unrelated to the issue described and is not indicated in this scenario.

2. A 2-year-old child with heart failure (HF) is admitted for replacement of a graft for coarctation of the aorta. Prior to administering the next dose of digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse obtains an apical heart rate of 128 bpm. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Determine the pulse deficit.
• B. Administer the scheduled dose.
• C. Calculate the safe dose range.
• D. Review the serum digoxin level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the scheduled dose is appropriate in this scenario. The nurse obtained an apical heart rate of 128 bpm, which is within the expected range for a 2-year-old child. Therefore, there is no immediate concern to withhold the scheduled dose of digoxin. Determining the pulse deficit is not necessary as the heart rate is appropriate. Calculating the safe dose range is not needed as the current dose is within the therapeutic range. Reviewing the serum digoxin level may be indicated later for monitoring but is not urgent based on the heart rate assessment. Administering the scheduled dose of digoxin is the correct action at this time.

3. A 7-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with nephrotic syndrome. The nurse notes that the child has gained 3 pounds in the past 24 hours. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer a diuretic as prescribed
• B. Restrict the child’s fluid intake
• C. Notify the healthcare provider
• D. Measure the child’s abdominal girth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a child with nephrotic syndrome experiencing sudden weight gain, the priority action for the nurse is to notify the healthcare provider. This weight gain could indicate worsening edema or fluid retention, necessitating immediate medical evaluation and intervention. The healthcare provider can conduct a comprehensive assessment, order necessary tests, and adjust the treatment plan accordingly. Administering a diuretic, restricting fluid intake, or measuring abdominal girth should not be initiated without healthcare provider consultation to ensure appropriate management of the child's condition.

4. A 12-year-old male is brought to the clinic after falling during a skateboarding trick. The child's vital signs are heart rate 135 beats/minute, respirations 20 breaths/minute, and blood pressure 90/60. Which finding should the practical nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. The client complains of his back being sore.
• B. Capillary refill is less than 2 seconds.
• C. Blood pressure is 94/68.
• D. Peripheral pulses are weak and rapid.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the 12-year-old male with a heart rate of 135 beats/minute, respirations of 20 breaths/minute, and blood pressure of 90/60 after falling during a skateboarding trick exhibits signs of shock. Weak and rapid peripheral pulses are concerning as they may indicate decreased cardiac output and tissue perfusion, which are signs of shock. This finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately for further evaluation and intervention to prevent potential complications. The other choices are less urgent. Complaints of back soreness (choice A) could be related to musculoskeletal injury. Capillary refill less than 2 seconds (choice B) is within the normal range, indicating adequate peripheral perfusion. A blood pressure of 94/68 (choice C) is slightly higher than the initial reading and may be compensatory in response to the fall and shock state.

5. A 6-year-old boy with bronchial asthma takes the beta-adrenergic agonist albuterol (Proventil). The child’s mother tells the nurse that she uses this medication to open her son’s airway when he is having trouble breathing. What is the nurse’s best response?

• A. Recommend that the mother bring the child in for immediate evaluation
• B. Advise the mother that overuse of the drug may cause chronic bronchitis
• C. Assure the mother that she is using the medication correctly
• D. Confirm that the medication helps to reduce airway inflammation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to assure the mother that she is using the medication correctly. Albuterol is a beta-adrenergic agonist that helps open the airways during an asthma attack. By reassuring the mother, the nurse reinforces the correct usage of the medication, which is crucial in managing the child's asthma symptoms effectively. Option A is incorrect because immediate evaluation may not be necessary if the child's symptoms are being managed effectively with albuterol. Option B is incorrect as chronic bronchitis is not typically associated with the overuse of albuterol. Option D is incorrect as albuterol primarily acts as a bronchodilator and does not directly reduce airway inflammation.

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