Nursing Elites

1. A male client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has a highly elevated glycosylated hemoglobin (Hb) test result. In discussing the result with the client, nurse Sharmaine would be most accurate in stating:

• A. The test needs to be repeated following a 12-hour fast.
• B. It appears you aren't following the prescribed diabetic diet.
• C. It tells us about your sugar control for the last 3 months.
• D. Your insulin regimen needs to be significantly altered.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) reflects average blood glucose levels over the past 3 months. This test is used to assess long-term blood sugar control in individuals with diabetes. Choice A is incorrect because fasting is not required for an HbA1c test. Choice B is judgmental and not supported by the information provided. Choice D is not the most accurate statement to make based on the HbA1c result; adjusting insulin would depend on a more comprehensive assessment of the client's overall diabetes management.

2. How often should rotation sites for insulin injection be separated from one another?

• A. Every third day.
• B. Every week.
• C. Every 2-3 weeks.
• D. Every 2-4 weeks.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Insulin injection sites should be rotated every 2-3 weeks to prevent lipodystrophy and ensure proper insulin absorption. Option A ('Every third day') is too frequent and does not allow enough time for the previous site to heal properly. Option B ('Every week') might not provide adequate time for the tissue to recover. Option D ('Every 2-4 weeks') could potentially lead to overuse of a single injection site, increasing the risk of lipodystrophy and inconsistent insulin absorption. Therefore, the recommended interval of every 2-3 weeks is optimal for insulin injection site rotation.

3. A client with diabetes mellitus visits a health care clinic. The client's diabetes was previously well controlled with glyburide (Diabeta), 5 mg PO daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose has been running 180-200 mg/dl. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?

• A. Prednisone (Deltasone)
• B. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• C. Phenelzine (Nardil)
• D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can increase blood glucose levels by promoting gluconeogenesis and decreasing glucose uptake by cells. This medication can lead to hyperglycemia in patients, especially those with diabetes mellitus. Atenolol (Tenormin) is a beta-blocker and is not known to significantly affect blood glucose levels. Phenelzine (Nardil) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used to treat depression and anxiety disorders; it does not typically impact blood glucose levels. Allopurinol (Zyloprim) is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used to manage gout and does not interfere with blood glucose regulation.

4. An agitated, confused female client arrives in the emergency department. Her history includes type 1 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and angina pectoris. Assessment reveals pallor, diaphoresis, headache, and intense hunger. A stat blood glucose sample measures 42 mg/dl, and the client is treated for an acute hypoglycemic reaction. After recovery, the nurse teaches the client to treat hypoglycemia by ingesting:

• A. 2 to 5 g of a simple carbohydrate.
• B. 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate.
• C. 18 to 20 g of a simple carbohydrate.
• D. 25 to 30 g of a simple carbohydrate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate. In the treatment of hypoglycemia, it is important to administer a specific amount of simple carbohydrates to raise blood glucose levels effectively without causing hyperglycemia. 10 to 15 g of simple carbohydrates, such as glucose tablets, fruit juice, or regular soft drinks, is recommended to rapidly increase blood sugar levels in clients experiencing hypoglycemia. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they either provide too little or too much glucose, which may not effectively treat the hypoglycemic episode or may lead to rebound hyperglycemia.

5. The client has received IV solutions for three (3) days through a 20-gauge IV catheter placed in the left cephalic vein. On morning rounds, the nurse notes the IV site is tender to palpation and a red streak has formed. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Start a new IV in the right hand.
• B. Discontinue the intravenous line.
• C. Complete an incident record.
• D. Place a warm washcloth over the site.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The first action should be to discontinue the intravenous line to prevent further complications such as infection or thrombophlebitis. Starting a new IV in the right hand is not the priority as addressing the current issue is important. Completing an incident record can be done after addressing the immediate concern of the IV site. Placing a warm washcloth over the site does not address the red streak and tenderness, which may indicate an infection that requires discontinuation of the IV line.

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