a male client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has a highly elevated glycosylated hemoglobin hb test result in discussing the result with the client nurs
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Leadership HESI Quizlet

1. A male client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has a highly elevated glycosylated hemoglobin (Hb) test result. In discussing the result with the client, nurse Sharmaine would be most accurate in stating:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) reflects average blood glucose levels over the past 3 months. This test is used to assess long-term blood sugar control in individuals with diabetes. Choice A is incorrect because fasting is not required for an HbA1c test. Choice B is judgmental and not supported by the information provided. Choice D is not the most accurate statement to make based on the HbA1c result; adjusting insulin would depend on a more comprehensive assessment of the client's overall diabetes management.

2. Clinical nursing assessment for a patient with microangiopathy who has manifested impaired peripheral arterial circulation includes all of the following except:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a patient with impaired peripheral arterial circulation, clinical nursing assessment should include integumentary inspection for the presence of brown spots, observation for paleness of the lower extremities, and observation for blanching of the feet after the legs are elevated for 60 seconds. Palpation for increased pulse volume in the arteries of the lower extremities is not consistent with impaired circulation, as pulses are typically diminished in this condition. Therefore, palpation for increased pulse volume is not relevant to the assessment of impaired peripheral arterial circulation.

3. The client has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which intervention is most appropriate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is to restrict oral fluids. This is because SIADH leads to excessive production of antidiuretic hormone, causing water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. By restricting oral fluids, the nurse helps prevent further water retention and imbalance of electrolytes. Encouraging increased fluid intake (Choice A) would exacerbate the condition by further increasing fluid retention. Administering hypertonic saline (Choice B) is not the primary treatment for SIADH, as it may worsen the imbalance. Monitoring for signs of dehydration (Choice C) is not appropriate since SIADH leads to water retention, not dehydration.

4. Skillful communication is one behavior of an effective leader. Which of the following describes an effective method of communication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Meeting with a new nurse to discuss progress and areas for improvement is an effective communication method.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus is receiving an oral antidiabetic medication. The nurse should monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypoglycemia. When a client with diabetes mellitus is taking oral antidiabetic medication, the nurse should closely monitor for hypoglycemia, which is a common adverse effect. Hypoglycemia occurs when the blood sugar levels drop below normal range, leading to symptoms like confusion, shakiness, and sweating. Weight gain (Choice A) is not a typical adverse effect of oral antidiabetic medications. Hyperglycemia (Choice C) is the opposite of the desired effect of antidiabetic medications, which aim to lower blood sugar levels. Bradycardia (Choice D) is not directly associated with oral antidiabetic medications; it refers to a slow heart rate.

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