Nursing Elites

1. A male client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has a highly elevated glycosylated hemoglobin (Hb) test result. In discussing the result with the client, nurse Sharmaine would be most accurate in stating:

• A. The test needs to be repeated following a 12-hour fast.
• B. It appears you aren't following the prescribed diabetic diet.
• C. It tells us about your sugar control for the last 3 months.
• D. Your insulin regimen needs to be significantly altered.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) reflects average blood glucose levels over the past 3 months. This test is used to assess long-term blood sugar control in individuals with diabetes. Choice A is incorrect because fasting is not required for an HbA1c test. Choice B is judgmental and not supported by the information provided. Choice D is not the most accurate statement to make based on the HbA1c result; adjusting insulin would depend on a more comprehensive assessment of the client's overall diabetes management.

2. Effective leaders must communicate a vision for the future. Which of the following is the best method for communicating a vision for the future?

• A. Involve others in creating the vision and connect daily work tasks to the vision.
• B. Encourage staff nurses to openly discuss practice and possible improvements.
• C. Critically analyze and discuss advances in practice with other nurses on staff.
• D. Actively listen to the recommendations of others.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best method for communicating a vision for the future is to involve others in creating the vision and connect daily work tasks to the vision. This approach fosters ownership and commitment among team members, as they feel part of the vision-building process and understand how their daily tasks contribute to achieving that vision. Choice B, encouraging staff nurses to openly discuss practice and possible improvements, is important for fostering communication but doesn't directly address creating and communicating a vision. Choice C, critically analyzing and discussing advances in practice with other nurses, focuses on professional development and knowledge sharing rather than specifically communicating a future vision. Choice D, actively listening to recommendations, is valuable for gathering input but may not be sufficient on its own for effectively communicating a future vision.

3. A client with Cushing's syndrome has been prescribed a diet low in sodium. The nurse knows that the client should avoid which of the following foods?

• A. Bananas
• B. Spinach
• C. Processed meats
• D. Oatmeal

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Processed meats. Clients with Cushing's syndrome who are on a low-sodium diet should avoid processed meats because they are typically high in sodium. Bananas, spinach, and oatmeal are generally low in sodium and can be included in a low-sodium diet. Bananas are a good source of potassium, spinach is rich in vitamins and minerals, and oatmeal is a healthy whole grain option. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are not the best options to avoid for a client with Cushing's syndrome following a low-sodium diet.

4. A healthcare provider caring for a client with severe malnutrition reviews the laboratory results and notes a magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL. Which electrocardiographic change would the healthcare provider expect to note based on the magnesium level?

• A. Prominent U waves
• B. Prolonged PR interval
• C. Depressed ST segment
• D. Widened QRS complexes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL can cause a depressed ST segment on the ECG. Magnesium deficiency commonly leads to ST segment depression on an electrocardiogram. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia, prolonged PR interval is seen in conditions like first-degree heart block, and widened QRS complexes are typically related to conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.

5. A client with diabetes insipidus is receiving desmopressin therapy. The nurse should monitor for which of the following potential side effects?

• A. Hyponatremia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyponatremia. Desmopressin, a medication used to treat diabetes insipidus, can cause the retention of water without sodium, leading to dilutional hyponatremia. This occurs because desmopressin increases water reabsorption in the kidneys without affecting sodium levels. Hypernatremia (choice B) is unlikely because desmopressin does not cause excessive sodium retention. Hypokalemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not typically associated with desmopressin therapy for diabetes insipidus.

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