Nursing Elites

1. A male client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has a highly elevated glycosylated hemoglobin (Hb) test result. In discussing the result with the client, nurse Sharmaine would be most accurate in stating:

• A. The test needs to be repeated following a 12-hour fast.
• B. It appears you aren't following the prescribed diabetic diet.
• C. It tells us about your sugar control for the last 3 months.
• D. Your insulin regimen needs to be significantly altered.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) reflects average blood glucose levels over the past 3 months. This test is used to assess long-term blood sugar control in individuals with diabetes. Choice A is incorrect because fasting is not required for an HbA1c test. Choice B is judgmental and not supported by the information provided. Choice D is not the most accurate statement to make based on the HbA1c result; adjusting insulin would depend on a more comprehensive assessment of the client's overall diabetes management.

2. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus presents with nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. The nurse suspects diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following lab findings would confirm this diagnosis?

• A. Serum glucose of 180 mg/dL
• B. Serum bicarbonate of 22 mEq/L
• C. Blood pH of 7.25
• D. Urine specific gravity of 1.020

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A blood pH of 7.25 is a critical finding in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) as it indicates metabolic acidosis, which is a hallmark of this condition. In DKA, there is an accumulation of ketones in the blood, leading to increased acidity. The serum glucose level is typically elevated in DKA, often exceeding 250 mg/dL. A serum bicarbonate level less than 18 mEq/L is usually seen in DKA due to the metabolic acidosis. Urine specific gravity is not a specific indicator for DKA and may vary depending on the individual's hydration status. Therefore, the correct lab finding that confirms DKA in this scenario is a blood pH of 7.25.

3. What is the mechanism of action of corticotropin (Acthar) when prescribed as replacement therapy for a male client who has undergone surgical removal of a pituitary tumor?

• A. It decreases cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) production and affects the metabolic rate of target organs.
• B. It interacts with plasma membrane receptors to inhibit enzymatic actions.
• C. It interacts with plasma membrane receptors to produce enzymatic actions that affect protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism.
• D. It regulates the threshold for water reabsorption in the kidneys.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corticotropin (ACTH) stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol and other hormones, affecting protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism. Choice A is incorrect because corticotropin does not decrease cAMP production; instead, it stimulates enzymatic actions. Choice B is incorrect because corticotropin does not inhibit enzymatic actions but rather produces enzymatic actions. Choice D is incorrect because corticotropin's mechanism of action does not involve regulating the threshold for water reabsorption in the kidneys.

4. A nurse is assigned to care for a group of clients. On reviewing the clients' medical records, the nurse determines that which client is at risk for deficient fluid volume?

• A. A client with a colostomy
• B. A client with congestive heart failure
• C. A client with decreased kidney function
• D. A client receiving frequent wound irrigations

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with a colostomy are at risk for deficient fluid volume due to the loss of fluid through the colostomy. In colostomy, there can be increased fluid loss through the stoma, which may lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Choices B, C, and D do not directly relate to the risk for deficient fluid volume. Clients with congestive heart failure are more prone to fluid overload rather than deficient volume. Clients with decreased kidney function are at risk for fluid retention, not deficient volume. Clients receiving frequent wound irrigations may be at risk for infection, but this does not directly indicate deficient fluid volume.

5. What is the nurse manager’s role in improving the quality of care on the unit?

• A. The nurse manager is responsible for setting goals and priorities for the unit and ensuring that staff members are working towards achieving those goals.
• B. The nurse manager is responsible for monitoring patient outcomes and implementing changes to improve the quality of care on the unit.
• C. The nurse manager is responsible for ensuring that staff members follow established procedures and protocols to maintain the quality of care on the unit.
• D. The nurse manager is responsible for providing feedback and coaching to staff members to help them improve their performance and achieve the unit’s quality goals.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse manager plays a crucial role in improving the quality of care on the unit by setting goals and priorities for the unit and ensuring that staff members are working towards achieving those goals. This involves strategic planning, coordination, and leadership to guide the team in delivering high-quality patient care. Option B is incorrect as while monitoring patient outcomes is important, it is not the primary role of the nurse manager in improving care quality. Option C is incorrect because while ensuring staff adherence to procedures is important, it is a part of maintaining quality rather than actively improving it. Option D is incorrect as providing feedback and coaching, though essential, is not the primary role of the nurse manager in setting goals and priorities for quality improvement.

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