Nursing Elites

1. A male client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has a highly elevated glycosylated hemoglobin (Hb) test result. In discussing the result with the client, nurse Sharmaine would be most accurate in stating:

• A. The test needs to be repeated following a 12-hour fast.
• B. It appears you aren't following the prescribed diabetic diet.
• C. It tells us about your sugar control for the last 3 months.
• D. Your insulin regimen needs to be significantly altered.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) reflects average blood glucose levels over the past 3 months. This test is used to assess long-term blood sugar control in individuals with diabetes. Choice A is incorrect because fasting is not required for an HbA1c test. Choice B is judgmental and not supported by the information provided. Choice D is not the most accurate statement to make based on the HbA1c result; adjusting insulin would depend on a more comprehensive assessment of the client's overall diabetes management.

2. A healthcare professional is monitoring a client newly diagnosed with DM for signs of complications. Which sign or symptom, if exhibited in the client, indicates that the client is at risk for chronic complications of diabetes if blood glucose levels are not adequately managed?

• A. Polyuria
• B. Diaphoresis
• C. Pedal edema
• D. Proteinuria

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Proteinuria is the correct answer because it indicates kidney damage, which is a common complication of uncontrolled diabetes. Elevated blood glucose levels over time can damage the kidneys, leading to proteinuria. Polyuria (excessive urination) is a symptom of diabetes but does not specifically indicate a risk for chronic complications. Diaphoresis (excessive sweating) and pedal edema (swelling of the lower limbs) are not direct indicators of chronic complications related to uncontrolled diabetes.

3. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed metformin. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following potential side effects?

• A. Lactic acidosis
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, lactic acidosis. Metformin, a common medication for type 2 diabetes mellitus, can lead to lactic acidosis, particularly in individuals with renal impairment or predisposing factors. Monitoring for signs of lactic acidosis, such as muscle pain, weakness, trouble breathing, dizziness, and slow or uneven heart rate, is crucial to prevent serious complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as metformin does not typically cause hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, or weight gain as its primary side effects.

4. Which of the following is an interpersonal activity of nurse managers, but not necessarily all nurse leaders?

• A. Coaching
• B. Resource allocation
• C. Planning for the future
• D. Monitoring

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Coaching. Nurse managers are directly involved in coaching their team members, providing guidance, support, and mentorship. This is a key interpersonal activity that focuses on developing the skills and performance of individual team members. While nurse leaders may also engage in coaching activities, it is a more specific and hands-on role for nurse managers. Choice B, resource allocation, is a managerial function that involves distributing resources effectively and efficiently. Choice C, planning for the future, is a strategic activity that involves setting goals and directions for the organization. Choice D, monitoring, is a supervisory task that involves overseeing and evaluating processes and outcomes. These activities are important for nurse leaders as well as nurse managers, but coaching is a more direct interpersonal interaction typically associated with nurse managers.

5. A client with type 1 DM is admitted to the hospital with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The nurse should prioritize which action?

• A. Administering intravenous fluids.
• B. Administering oral glucose.
• C. Administering a fever-reducing medication.
• D. Administering oxygen therapy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering intravenous fluids is the priority in treating DKA for several reasons. DKA is characterized by severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalances due to hyperglycemia. IV fluids help to correct dehydration, restore electrolyte balance, and decrease blood glucose levels. Administering oral glucose (Choice B) would be contraindicated in DKA as the primary issue is high blood glucose levels. Administering a fever-reducing medication (Choice C) is not the priority in managing DKA. Administering oxygen therapy (Choice D) may be necessary in some cases, but correcting dehydration and electrolyte imbalances take precedence in the management of DKA.

Similar Questions