HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam
1. A male client with impaired renal function who takes ibuprofen daily for chronic arthritis is admitted with gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding. After administering IV fluids and a blood transfusion, his blood pressure is 100/70, and his renal output is 20 ml/hour. Which intervention should the nurse include in care?
- A. Maintain the client NPO during the diuresis phase.
- B. Evaluate daily serial renal laboratory studies for progressive elevations.
- C. Observe the urine character for sedimentation and cloudy appearance.
- D. Monitor for onset of polyuria greater than 150ml/hour.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Evaluating daily renal laboratory studies is crucial in this scenario. The client has impaired renal function, recent GI bleeding, and is at risk for further kidney damage due to ibuprofen use. Monitoring renal labs helps assess kidney function and detect any progressive elevations, guiding further interventions. Option A is not directly related to renal function monitoring. Option C focuses more on urine appearance than renal function assessment. Option D mentions polyuria, which is excessive urine output, but the question describes a client with reduced renal output.
2. While performing a skin inspection for a female adult client, the nurse observes a rash that is well circumscribed, has silvery scales and plaques, and is located on the elbows and knees. These assessment findings are likely to indicate which condition?
- A. Tinea corporis
- B. Herpes zoster
- C. Psoriasis
- D. Drug reaction
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Psoriasis. Psoriasis commonly presents with well-circumscribed, silvery scales and plaques, typically found on extensor surfaces like elbows and knees. Tinea corporis (A) presents as a circular rash, herpes zoster (B) presents as a painful rash following a dermatomal pattern, and drug reactions (D) have variable presentations not specific to elbows and knees with silvery scales and plaques.
3. A client with a postoperative wound that eviscerated yesterday has an elevated temperature. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Initiate contact isolation.
- B. Obtain a wound swab for culture and sensitivity.
- C. Assess temperature every 4 hours.
- D. Use alcohol-based solutions for hand hygiene.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the most critical intervention is to obtain a wound swab for culture and sensitivity. This will help identify the causative organism present in the wound, enabling healthcare providers to prescribe the appropriate treatment. Initiating contact isolation (Choice A) may be necessary in certain situations but is not the priority in this case where infection is suspected. Assessing the temperature (Choice C) is important for monitoring the client's condition but does not address the underlying cause. Using alcohol-based solutions for hand hygiene (Choice D) is a standard practice for infection control but does not directly address the client's specific condition of a postoperative wound with evisceration and elevated temperature.
4. When administering ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin) intravenously to a client, what finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Stridor
- B. Nausea
- C. Headache
- D. Pruritus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stridor. Stridor is a high-pitched sound that indicates airway obstruction. When administering ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin) intravenously, if the client develops stridor, it is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention to maintain a patent airway. Nausea, headache, and pruritus are important to assess, but they do not pose an immediate threat to the client's airway and would not require the same level of urgent intervention as stridor.
5. A gravida 2 para 1, at 38-weeks gestation, scheduled for a repeat cesarean section in one week, is brought to the labor and delivery unit complaining of contractions every 10 minutes. While assessing the client, the client's mother enters the labor suite and says in a loud voice, 'I've had 8 children and I know she's in labor. I want her to have her cesarean section right now!' What action should the nurse take?
- A. Tell the mother to stop speaking for the client.
- B. Notify the charge nurse of the situation.
- C. Request that the mother leave the room.
- D. Request security to remove her from the room.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to request that the mother leave the room. This is important to maintain a calm environment and allow the healthcare team to assess and manage the situation without interference. Option A is not the best choice as it may escalate the situation. Option B, notifying the charge nurse, could be considered after addressing the immediate need to remove the mother from the room. Option D, requesting security to remove her, is not necessary at this point and may further escalate the situation unnecessarily.
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