HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals
1. A client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline is instructed to take three doses of the medication each day. Since timed-release capsules are not available, which dosing schedule should the nurse advise the client to follow?
- A. 9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.
- B. 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight.
- C. Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner.
- D. With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Theophylline should be administered on a regular around-the-clock schedule to provide the best bronchodilating effect and reduce the potential for adverse effects. The correct dosing schedule of 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight ensures that the client receives consistent dosing throughout the day. Other options do not provide the necessary around-the-clock coverage. It's important to note that food may affect the absorption of the medication, which is why the dosing schedule should not be tied to meal times.
2. The healthcare provider plans to foster a therapeutic relationship with the patient utilizing therapeutic techniques of communication. It is most important that the provider:
- A. Work on establishing rapport with the patient.
- B. Use humor to lighten emotionally charged topics of discussion.
- C. Empathize with the patient when the patient shares sad feelings.
- D. Demonstrate respect when discussing emotionally charged topics.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In fostering a therapeutic relationship, demonstrating respect is essential as it helps the patient feel valued and understood. Respectful communication contributes to building trust and a safe environment for open and honest discussions.
3. A female client with chronic back pain has been taking muscle relaxants and analgesics to manage the discomfort, but is now experiencing an acute episode of pain that is not relieved by this medication regimen. The client tells the nurse that she does not want to have back surgery for a herniated intervertebral disk, and reports that she has found acupuncture effective in resolving past acute episodes. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. Surgery removes the disk and is the only treatment that can totally resolve the pain
- B. The medication regimen you previously used should be re-evaluated for dose adjustment
- C. Massage and hot pack treatments are less invasive and can provide temporary relief
- D. Acupuncture is a complementary therapy that is often effective for management of pain
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Acknowledging the effectiveness of acupuncture is important, as the client has reported its success in managing her pain previously.
4. The healthcare professional is using the Glasgow Coma Scale to perform a neurologic assessment. A comatose client winces and pulls away from a painful stimulus. What action should the healthcare professional take next?
- A. Document that the client responds to a painful stimulus.
- B. Observe the client's response to verbal stimulation.
- C. Place the client on seizure precautions for 24 hours.
- D. Report decorticate posturing to the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The client's response to a painful stimulus indicates a purposeful reaction, which should be accurately documented as per the assessment findings. This documentation is essential for ongoing monitoring and communication of the client's condition to the healthcare team.
5. During the digital removal of a fecal impaction, the nurse should stop the procedure and take corrective action if which client reaction is noted?
- A. Temperature increases from 98.8° to 99.0° F.
- B. Pulse rate decreases from 78 to 52 beats/min.
- C. Respiratory rate increases from 16 to 24 breaths/min.
- D. Blood pressure increases from 110/84 to 118/88 mmHg.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During digital removal of a fecal impaction, a vagal response can occur due to stimulation of the anal sphincter. If the client experiences bradycardia (pulse rate decreases), the nurse should stop the procedure immediately and take corrective action to prevent any complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not indicate a vagal response, which is the expected adverse reaction during this procedure.
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