Nursing Elites

1. A client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline is instructed to take three doses of the medication each day. Since timed-release capsules are not available, which dosing schedule should the nurse advise the client to follow?

• A. 9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.
• B. 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight.
• C. Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner.
• D. With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Theophylline should be administered on a regular around-the-clock schedule to provide the best bronchodilating effect and reduce the potential for adverse effects. The correct dosing schedule of 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight ensures that the client receives consistent dosing throughout the day. Other options do not provide the necessary around-the-clock coverage. It's important to note that food may affect the absorption of the medication, which is why the dosing schedule should not be tied to meal times.

2. When taking a client's blood pressure, the healthcare professional is unable to distinguish the point at which the first sound was heard. What is the best action for the healthcare professional to take?

• A. Deflate the cuff completely and immediately reattempt the reading.
• B. Reinflate the cuff completely and leave it inflated for 90 to 110 seconds before taking the second reading.
• C. Deflate the cuff to zero and wait 30 to 60 seconds before reattempting the reading.
• D. Document the exact level visualized on the sphygmomanometer where the first fluctuation was seen.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action when unable to distinguish the point of the first sound during blood pressure measurement is to deflate the cuff to zero and wait 30 to 60 seconds before reattempting the reading. This allows blood flow to return to the extremity, ensuring a more accurate reading the second time. It is important to ensure that the cuff is fully deflated and the appropriate wait time is given to obtain an accurate blood pressure measurement.

3. A community hospital is opening a mental health services department. Which document should the nurse use to develop the unit's nursing guidelines?

• A. Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990
• B. ANA Code of Ethics with Interpretative Statements
• C. ANA's Scope and Standards of Nursing Practice
• D. Patient's Bill of Rights of 1990

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The ANA's Scope and Standards of Nursing Practice are essential guidelines for nursing practice in various specialties, including mental health. The document outlines the expectations and responsibilities of nurses in providing high-quality care within their specific practice areas. In the context of opening a mental health services department, using the Scope and Standards specific to psychiatric–mental health nursing would ensure that the unit's nursing guidelines align with best practices and professional standards in mental health care. Choices A, B, and D are not focused on providing specific guidelines for nursing practice in a mental health services department, making them incorrect options.

4. What is the most important action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with a spinal cord injury experiencing autonomic dysreflexia?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees.
• B. Monitor the client's respiratory rate.
• C. Administer an antihypertensive medication.
• D. Assess the client's blood glucose level.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with autonomic dysreflexia, the most critical action is to elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees (A). This positioning helps reduce blood pressure, which is essential in managing autonomic dysreflexia. Monitoring the client's respiratory rate (B) is important for overall assessment but not the priority in this situation. Administering an antihypertensive medication (C) without addressing the positioning issue first can lead to further complications. Assessing the client's blood glucose level (D) is not directly related to autonomic dysreflexia and is not the initial priority in this scenario.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client who is experiencing fluid volume deficit (dehydration). Which intervention should the healthcare provider implement to assess the effectiveness of fluid replacement therapy?

• A. Monitor daily weights
• B. Assess skin turgor
• C. Evaluate blood pressure trends
• D. Check urine specific gravity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring daily weights is an accurate method to assess the effectiveness of fluid replacement therapy because changes in weight reflect changes in fluid balance. Fluid volume deficit can be objectively evaluated by monitoring daily weights as it provides a more precise measurement of fluid status over time. Assessing skin turgor (choice B) is subjective and may not provide as accurate or measurable data as monitoring daily weights. Evaluating blood pressure trends (choice C) can give information about circulatory status but may not directly reflect fluid volume status. Checking urine specific gravity (choice D) can indicate the concentration of urine but does not provide a comprehensive assessment of overall fluid balance like monitoring daily weights does.

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