a female client with major depressive disorder tells the nurse she feels worthless and she cant see how her life will ever get better what is the best
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2023

1. A female client with major depressive disorder tells the nurse she feels worthless and can't see how her life will ever get better. What is the best response by the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the best response because it directly addresses the client's expressed hopelessness and assesses the risk for self-harm. When a client with major depressive disorder expresses feeling worthless and unable to see improvement, it is essential to assess suicidal ideation to ensure their safety. Choices A, B, and D provide empathy and support, which are important but addressing suicidal ideation is the priority in this situation.

2. In assessing a client 48 hours following a fracture, the nurse observes ecchymosis at the fracture site and recognizes that hematoma formation at the bone fragment site has occurred. What action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After observing ecchymosis at the fracture site, indicating hematoma formation, the nurse's priority is to document the extent of the bruising in the medical record. This documentation helps track the client's condition, aids in treatment planning, and serves as a baseline for monitoring changes. Applying a cold compress (choice B) may be contraindicated due to the risk of vasoconstriction and potential tissue damage. Elevating the affected limb (choice C) can be beneficial for reducing swelling in some cases, but documenting the bruising is the immediate concern. Notifying the healthcare provider (choice D) is not necessary at this stage unless there are other concerning symptoms or complications beyond the hematoma formation.

3. A client with a traumatic brain injury becomes progressively less responsive to stimuli. The client has a 'Do Not Resuscitate' prescription, and the nurse observes that the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) has stopped turning the client from side to side as previously scheduled. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuing to turn the client is crucial to prevent complications such as pressure ulcers, even if the client is less responsive. Advising the UAP to resume positioning the client on schedule is the most appropriate action in this situation. This action ensures that the client's care needs are met and helps prevent potential complications. Notifying the healthcare provider or documenting the UAP's actions may delay the necessary care for the client. Discussing the situation with the client's family is important but addressing the immediate care need of turning the client takes priority.

4. A client with newly diagnosed peptic ulcer disease is being taught about lifestyle modifications. Which client statement indicates that further teaching is needed?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The corrected question assesses the client's understanding of lifestyle modifications for peptic ulcer disease. Choice D, 'I should avoid drinking alcohol to prevent irritation of my ulcer,' is the correct answer. This statement demonstrates that the client has a good grasp of the teaching provided, as alcohol can indeed irritate peptic ulcers. Choices A, B, and C are all accurate statements that reflect appropriate understanding of managing peptic ulcer disease and do not indicate a need for further teaching.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which laboratory value should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L is dangerously high, a condition known as hyperkalemia, and requires immediate intervention to prevent cardiac complications. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, making it crucial to notify the healthcare provider promptly. Choices A, B, and D do not indicate immediate life-threatening conditions. Elevated serum creatinine levels are expected in CKD, a hemoglobin level of 10 g/dl is within a reasonable range, and a blood glucose level of 150 mg/dl is not acutely concerning in this context.

Similar Questions

Progressive kyphoscoliosis leading to respiratory distress is evident in a client with muscular dystrophy. Which finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a CT scan with contrast. Which laboratory value should the nurse review before the procedure?
The nurse is assessing a client with right-sided heart failure. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
An elderly male client is admitted to the urology unit with acute renal failure due to a postrenal obstruction. Which question best assists the nurse in obtaining relevant historical data?
Sublingual nitroglycerin is administered to a male client with unstable angina who complains of crushing chest pain. Five minutes later, the client becomes nauseated, and his blood pressure drops to 60/40 mm Hg. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Access More Features

HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses