Nursing Elites

1. A female client with a history of major depressive disorder is experiencing a worsening of symptoms. Which statement by the client indicates a potential risk for suicide?

• A. “I’ve been feeling more tired than usual.”
• B. “I’ve been thinking about how much better everyone would be without me.”
• C. “I’ve been having trouble sleeping lately.”
• D. “I feel like I can’t handle everything.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client’s statement about thinking that everyone would be better off without her indicates suicidal ideation. This statement is a significant warning sign for suicide risk and requires immediate intervention. Choices A, C, and D reflect common symptoms of depression but do not directly indicate suicidal thoughts or intentions. Feeling tired, having trouble sleeping, and feeling overwhelmed are typical symptoms of major depressive disorder but do not necessarily suggest an imminent risk of suicide like the statement in option B does.

2. A client with a recent diagnosis of bipolar disorder is attending a support group for the first time. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further education about the disorder?

• A. “I will make sure to take my medications every day.”
• B. “I will avoid high-stress situations whenever possible.”
• C. “I know I can stop my medications when I am feeling better.”
• D. “I should monitor my mood changes closely.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because it shows a misconception about bipolar disorder treatment. Stopping medications when feeling better can lead to a relapse or worsening of symptoms. Choice A is correct because medication adherence is crucial in managing bipolar disorder. Choice B is also a good strategy as stress management is important in symptom control. Choice D is a proactive approach to self-awareness and can help in recognizing early signs of mood changes.

3. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?

• A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
• B. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
• C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM
• D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.

4. A client in the emergency department presents with confusion, disorientation, and agitation after drinking alcohol. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate to assess for potential complications?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC)
• B. Electrolyte panel
• C. Liver function tests
• D. Urinalysis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is an electrolyte panel. When a client presents with confusion, disorientation, and agitation after drinking alcohol, it indicates potential complications such as electrolyte imbalances. Monitoring electrolyte levels is crucial in these cases to detect and address abnormalities that may result from alcohol intake. While a complete blood count (choice A) may provide some valuable information, it is not the primary test to assess for alcohol-related complications presenting with these symptoms. Liver function tests (choice C) are more specific for assessing liver damage due to chronic alcohol use rather than immediate complications. Urinalysis (choice D) may help detect some issues but is not the most appropriate initial test to assess for potential complications in this scenario.

5. A client is agitated and physically aggressive. What action should the RN take first?

• A. Calmly inform the client that they will be placed in seclusion if they do not calm down.
• B. Discuss with the client the reasons for their agitation and aggression.
• C. Tell the client that physical aggression is not acceptable and must stop.
• D. Seek assistance from other staff members and follow the facility’s protocol.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a situation where a client is agitated and physically aggressive, the priority for the RN is to ensure the safety of the client and others. Seeking assistance from other staff members is crucial as it allows for a prompt response to manage the situation effectively and according to the facility’s protocol. Choices A, B, and C do not address the immediate need for safety or involve the collaboration of other staff members, which is essential in handling aggressive behaviors in a healthcare setting.

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