Nursing Elites

1. A female client, who is wearing dirty clothes and has a foul body odor, comes to the clinic reporting feeling scared because she is being stalked. What action is most important for the nurse to take?

• A. Assure the client that she will be seen by a healthcare provider today.
• B. Recommend that the client speaks with a social worker.
• C. Ask the client if she feels comfortable sharing why she is being stalked.
• D. Offer the client a safe place to relax before interviewing her.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most important action for the nurse to take in this scenario is to offer the client a safe place to relax before interviewing her. The client's disheveled appearance and foul body odor suggest she may be in distress or facing challenging circumstances. By providing her with a safe and comfortable environment to relax, the nurse can help alleviate some of her distress and establish trust. This approach is crucial as the client is already feeling scared due to being stalked, indicating underlying mental health concerns. Assuring the client that she will be seen by a healthcare provider today (choice A) may not address her immediate need for safety and comfort. Recommending she speaks with a social worker (choice B) may be beneficial later but does not address the immediate need for a safe space. Asking the client if she feels comfortable sharing why she is being stalked (choice C) is not appropriate as the priority is ensuring her safety and comfort first.

2. The occupational health nurse is working with a female employee who was just notified that her child was involved in a motor vehicle accident (MVA) and taken to the hospital. The employee states, “I can’t believe this. What should I do?” Which response is best for the nurse to provide in this crisis?

• A. Tell me what you think should be done.
• B. How serious was the collision?
• C. What do you think you should do?
• D. Call for transportation to the hospital.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a crisis situation where the female employee's child is involved in a motor vehicle accident (MVA) and taken to the hospital, the most appropriate response for the nurse is to provide immediate practical assistance. Calling for transportation to the hospital ensures that the employee can quickly reach her child in need of urgent medical attention. The other options (A, B, and C) do not address the immediate need for assistance and may not provide the necessary support required in such a critical situation.

3. A mental health worker is caring for a client with escalating aggressive behavior. Which action by the mental health worker warrants immediate intervention by the RN?

• A. Attempting to physically restrain the client.
• B. Remaining at a distance of 4 feet from the client.
• C. Telling the client to go to the quiet area of the unit.
• D. Using a loud voice to communicate with the client.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Attempting to physically restrain the client without proper protocol and preparation can escalate the situation. This can lead to increased agitation and aggression in the client, potentially putting both the client and the mental health worker at risk. Remaining at a distance, directing the client to a quiet area, or using a loud voice are all strategies that can be used to de-escalate the situation and ensure safety without resorting to physical intervention. Therefore, the immediate intervention is needed when the mental health worker attempts to physically restrain the client. Option B, remaining at a distance, is a safe practice to ensure personal safety. Option C, directing the client to a quiet area, is a de-escalation technique to create a calmer environment. Option D, using a loud voice, may be necessary to establish boundaries and ensure the client can hear instructions clearly.

4. An elderly client diagnosed with delirium is being treated with antipsychotic medication. Which side effect should the nurse monitor for in this client?

• A. Akathisia
• B. Hallucinations
• C. Orthostatic hypotension
• D. Drowsiness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct side effect that the nurse should monitor for in an elderly client diagnosed with delirium and treated with antipsychotic medication is orthostatic hypotension. Antipsychotic medications can lead to a drop in blood pressure upon standing, particularly in elderly individuals. Akathisia (choice A) refers to a movement disorder characterized by a feeling of inner restlessness and a compelling need to be in constant motion, which can be a side effect of antipsychotic medications but is not specific to elderly clients with delirium. Hallucinations (choice B) are sensory perceptions that appear real but are created by the mind, and while they can be associated with certain conditions or medications, they are not a common side effect of antipsychotic medications in elderly clients with delirium. Drowsiness (choice D) is a general CNS depressant effect that can occur with antipsychotic medications but is not the specific side effect that the nurse should be monitoring for in this case.

5. The client is being educated by the healthcare provider about starting a prescribed abstinence therapy with disulfiram (Antabuse). What information should the client understand?

• A. Maintain complete abstinence from alcohol consumption.
• B. Stay alcohol-free for at least 12 hours before the first dose.
• C. Participate in monthly therapy sessions.
• D. Disclose to others that he is receiving disulfiram therapy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Before starting disulfiram therapy (Antabuse), the client must comprehend the need to remain alcohol-free for a minimum of 12 hours. This is crucial to prevent the unpleasant and potentially dangerous reactions that can occur with concurrent alcohol consumption while on disulfiram. Choice A is incorrect because it mentions heroin or cocaine use, which is not the primary focus when initiating disulfiram therapy. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests therapy sessions, which are not specifically required before starting disulfiram. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to disclose disulfiram therapy to others, but rather to adhere to the abstinence requirement.

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