a client with multiple sclerosis is receiving intravenous methylprednisolone what is the nurses priority action
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. A client with multiple sclerosis is receiving intravenous methylprednisolone. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with multiple sclerosis is receiving intravenous methylprednisolone, the nurse's priority action is to monitor for signs of infection. Corticosteroids like methylprednisolone can suppress the immune system, increasing the risk of infection. Monitoring for signs of infection allows for early detection and prompt intervention. Monitoring blood glucose levels may be important in clients receiving corticosteroids for prolonged periods, but it is not the priority in this case. Encouraging increased oral fluid intake is generally beneficial but not the priority over monitoring for infection. Checking the client's temperature is important but not the priority action compared to monitoring for signs of infection.

2. The client with a below-the-knee amputation is being taught about proper care of the residual limb. The most important point to emphasize would be

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Keep the skin on the stump clean and dry. This is crucial for preventing infection and promoting healing of the residual limb. Wrapping the stump with an elastic bandage can constrict blood flow and cause issues. Using alcohol to cleanse the stump daily can be too harsh and drying for the skin, leading to irritation. Applying moisturizing lotion daily is not as essential as keeping the skin clean and dry to prevent complications.

3. In monitoring tissue perfusion in a client following an above the knee amputation (AKA), which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After an amputation, monitoring the pulse closest to the stump is crucial in evaluating tissue perfusion and the overall health of the limb. Swelling and changes in perfusion can indicate complications such as blood clots or infection. Assessing the proximal pulse helps the nurse ensure adequate blood flow to the remaining limb, thereby preventing further complications. Choices B, C, and D are less directly related to monitoring tissue perfusion in this scenario and are more focused on wound healing and stump care.

4. A client with a history of alcohol abuse presents with confusion and unsteady gait. The nurse suspects Wernicke's encephalopathy. Which treatment should the nurse anticipate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Wernicke's encephalopathy is a neurological condition commonly caused by a deficiency in thiamine, often seen in clients with chronic alcohol abuse. Thiamine supplementation is the primary treatment to prevent further neurological damage. Folic acid replacement (choice B) is not the correct treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy. Intravenous glucose (choice C) may be necessary in some cases of Wernicke's encephalopathy, but thiamine supplementation takes precedence. Magnesium sulfate administration (choice D) is not indicated as the primary treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy.

5. A client with heart failure has a prescription for digoxin. The nurse is aware that sufficient potassium should be included in the diet because hypokalemia in combination with this medication ____________.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Can predispose to dysrhythmias. Hypokalemia combined with digoxin increases the risk of dysrhythmias due to the potentiation of digoxin's effects on cardiac conduction. Choice B, May lead to oliguria, is incorrect because hypokalemia is not typically associated with oliguria. Choice C, May cause irritability and anxiety, is incorrect as these symptoms are more commonly associated with hypocalcemia. Choice D, Sometimes alters consciousness, is incorrect as altered consciousness is not a typical effect of hypokalemia combined with digoxin.

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