HESI RN
HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone
1. A client with multiple sclerosis is admitted with an acute exacerbation. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Monitor the client’s vital signs every hour.
- B. Assess for changes in the client’s muscle strength.
- C. Administer prescribed corticosteroids to reduce inflammation.
- D. Educate the client on managing fatigue and preventing relapses.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Administering prescribed corticosteroids to reduce inflammation is the priority action when a client with multiple sclerosis is admitted with an acute exacerbation. Corticosteroids help manage symptoms during exacerbations and reduce inflammation. Monitoring vital signs and assessing muscle strength are important aspects of care but not the priority during an acute exacerbation. Educating the client on managing fatigue and preventing relapses is essential but can be addressed after the acute exacerbation has been managed.
2. A client with hypothyroidism is prescribed levothyroxine. What should the nurse include in the teaching plan about this medication?
- A. Take the medication with a full meal
- B. Take the medication on an empty stomach
- C. Take the medication at bedtime
- D. Take the medication as needed for symptoms
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Take the medication on an empty stomach.' Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption and effectiveness. The medication is typically taken in the morning before breakfast. Choice A is incorrect because taking levothyroxine with a full meal can decrease its absorption. Choice C is incorrect because bedtime dosing may lead to insomnia. Choice D is incorrect because levothyroxine is a daily medication for hypothyroidism, not to be taken as needed for symptoms.
3. During an assessment of a client with congestive heart failure, the nurse is most likely to hear which of the following upon auscultation of the heart?
- A. S3 ventricular gallop
- B. Apical click
- C. Systolic murmur
- D. Split S2
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: An S3 ventricular gallop is an abnormal heart sound commonly heard in clients with congestive heart failure. This sound is indicative of fluid overload or volume expansion in the ventricles, which is often present in heart failure. <br> Incorrect Answers: <br> B: An apical click is not typically associated with congestive heart failure. <br> C: A systolic murmur may be heard in various cardiac conditions but is not specific to congestive heart failure. <br> D: A split S2 refers to a normal heart sound caused by the closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves at slightly different times during inspiration, not directly related to congestive heart failure.
4. A client presents to the labor and delivery unit with a report of leaking fluid that is greenish-brown vaginal discharge. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
- B. Begin continuous fetal monitoring
- C. Check the amniotic fluid pH
- D. Assess maternal vital signs
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Greenish-brown discharge likely indicates meconium in the amniotic fluid, which poses a risk to the fetus. Continuous fetal monitoring should be initiated immediately to assess for signs of fetal distress. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid can lead to meconium aspiration syndrome in the newborn, so timely monitoring is crucial. Checking the amniotic fluid pH can help confirm the presence of meconium but is not the priority over fetal monitoring. Assessing maternal vital signs is important but secondary to monitoring the fetal well-being in this urgent situation. Notifying the healthcare provider can follow once the immediate fetal assessment is underway.
5. A client with asthma is experiencing wheezing. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?
- A. Administer a bronchodilator immediately.
- B. Increase the client's oxygen flow rate.
- C. Perform a chest x-ray to assess lung function.
- D. Place the client in a high Fowler’s position.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer a bronchodilator immediately. Wheezing in a client with asthma indicates bronchoconstriction, which can compromise airflow. Administering a bronchodilator is the priority intervention as it helps to open the airways, relieve bronchoconstriction, and improve breathing. Increasing the oxygen flow rate (choice B) may be necessary but is not the priority when the airways are constricted. Performing a chest x-ray (choice C) is not the immediate action needed in this situation. Placing the client in a high Fowler's position (choice D) may provide some relief, but administering a bronchodilator to address the bronchoconstriction is the priority intervention.
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