Nursing Elites

1. A client with multiple sclerosis is admitted with an acute exacerbation. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Monitor the client’s vital signs every hour.
• B. Assess for changes in the client’s muscle strength.
• C. Administer prescribed corticosteroids to reduce inflammation.
• D. Educate the client on managing fatigue and preventing relapses.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Administering prescribed corticosteroids to reduce inflammation is the priority action when a client with multiple sclerosis is admitted with an acute exacerbation. Corticosteroids help manage symptoms during exacerbations and reduce inflammation. Monitoring vital signs and assessing muscle strength are important aspects of care but not the priority during an acute exacerbation. Educating the client on managing fatigue and preventing relapses is essential but can be addressed after the acute exacerbation has been managed.

2. When taking a health history, which information collected by the nurse correlates most directly to a diagnosis of chronic peripheral arterial insufficiency?

• A. Reports of leg cramping at rest
• B. Family history of heart disease
• C. Current use of beta-blockers
• D. History of intermittent claudication

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Intermittent claudication, or pain in the legs while walking that is relieved by rest, is a classic symptom of peripheral arterial insufficiency. Other factors such as a family history or medication use may contribute to cardiovascular health, but claudication is the most specific indicator. Leg cramping at rest is more indicative of conditions like peripheral neuropathy or deep vein thrombosis. Family history of heart disease and current use of beta-blockers are relevant to overall cardiovascular health, but they are not as directly related to chronic peripheral arterial insufficiency as intermittent claudication.

3. The charge nurse is planning assignments on a medical unit. Which client should be assigned to the PN?

• A. Test a stool specimen for occult blood
• B. Assist with the ambulation of a client with a chest tube
• C. Irrigate and redress a leg wound
• D. Admit a client from the emergency room

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Irrigating and redressing a leg wound is a common task within the PN's scope of practice, making this assignment appropriate. Tasks like testing stool specimens for occult blood and assisting with ambulation of a client with a chest tube may require a higher level of training and assessment, typically performed by RNs. Admitting a client from the emergency room involves a comprehensive assessment and decision-making process, which is usually within the RN's responsibility.

4. A male client with HIV on saquinavir and other antiretrovirals reports increased hunger and thirst but weight loss. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Use a glucometer to assess capillary glucose.
• B. Explain to the client that an increased dose of medication is needed.
• C. Reassure the client that weight will improve as viral load decreases.
• D. Teach the client how to measure his weight accurately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increased thirst and hunger while losing weight may indicate hyperglycemia, a common side effect of saquinavir and other antiretrovirals. Using a glucometer to assess capillary glucose levels is essential to evaluate for hyperglycemia. Choice B is incorrect because increasing the dose of medication without assessing blood glucose levels can be dangerous. Choice C is incorrect because weight loss may not necessarily improve with viral load reduction and doesn't address the immediate concern of hyperglycemia. Choice D is irrelevant to the presenting symptoms and should not be a priority over assessing for hyperglycemia.

5. A client is scheduled for surgery in the morning and is NPO. Which statement indicates that the client understands the reason for being NPO?

• A. Being NPO helps reduce the risk of nausea.
• B. I should not eat or drink anything to prevent complications during surgery.
• C. NPO reduces the risk of aspiration during surgery.
• D. NPO helps ensure the stomach is empty during surgery.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'NPO reduces the risk of aspiration during surgery.' When a client is NPO (nothing by mouth) before surgery, it is to prevent aspiration, which can lead to serious complications such as pneumonia. Choice A is incorrect because being NPO is more about preventing aspiration than nausea. Choice B is a general statement without specifying the reason for being NPO. Choice D is partially correct but does not emphasize the crucial aspect of preventing aspiration, which is the primary reason for fasting before surgery.

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