Nursing Elites

1. A client with multiple sclerosis is admitted with an acute exacerbation. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Monitor the client’s vital signs every hour.
• B. Assess for changes in the client’s muscle strength.
• C. Administer prescribed corticosteroids to reduce inflammation.
• D. Educate the client on managing fatigue and preventing relapses.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Administering prescribed corticosteroids to reduce inflammation is the priority action when a client with multiple sclerosis is admitted with an acute exacerbation. Corticosteroids help manage symptoms during exacerbations and reduce inflammation. Monitoring vital signs and assessing muscle strength are important aspects of care but not the priority during an acute exacerbation. Educating the client on managing fatigue and preventing relapses is essential but can be addressed after the acute exacerbation has been managed.

2. A male client with HIV receiving saquinavir PO in combination with other antiretrovirals reports constant hunger and thirst but is losing weight. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Use a glucometer to check glucose level.
• B. Teach client to measure weight accurately.
• C. Explain that medication dose may need to be increased.
• D. Reassure client weight will increase as viral load decreases.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to use a glucometer to check the client's glucose level. Saquinavir, an HIV medication, can lead to hyperglycemia, which may cause symptoms like constant hunger and thirst while losing weight. Checking the glucose level will help assess for hyperglycemia. Choice B is not the priority in this situation as the client's weight loss is a concerning symptom that needs immediate attention. Choice C is incorrect because increasing the medication dose without assessing the glucose level first could exacerbate hyperglycemia. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the symptoms of constant hunger, thirst, and weight loss, which may indicate a more urgent issue like hyperglycemia.

3. The mother of a 2-day-old infant girl expresses concern about a 'flea bite' type rash on her daughter's body. The nurse identifies a pink papular rash with vesicles superimposed over the thorax, back, buttocks, and abdomen. Which explanation should the nurse offer?

• A. We need to monitor the rash for signs of worsening or fever
• B. Your baby may have an allergic reaction to laundry detergent
• C. This is a common newborn rash that will resolve after several days
• D. This is likely a bacterial infection requiring antibiotics

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The rash described is typical of erythema toxicum neonatorum, a common and benign newborn rash that resolves on its own within a few days. No treatment is necessary, and the nurse should reassure the mother. Choice A is incorrect as the rash is self-limiting and does not require monitoring for worsening signs or fever. Choice B is incorrect as erythema toxicum neonatorum is not caused by an allergic reaction to laundry detergent. Choice D is incorrect as this rash is not indicative of a bacterial infection that requires antibiotics.

4. The nurse is teaching a group of women about osteoporosis and exercise. The nurse should emphasize the need for which type of regular activity?

• A. Weight-bearing exercise
• B. Aerobic exercise
• C. Low-impact exercises such as swimming
• D. Stretching and flexibility exercises

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weight-bearing exercise. Weight-bearing exercise helps build and maintain bone density, which is critical in preventing osteoporosis. Activities like aerobic exercises, stretching, and low-impact exercises such as swimming are beneficial for overall fitness but do not directly contribute to improving bone strength, making them less effective in preventing osteoporosis.

5. A client with type 1 diabetes is found unconscious with a blood glucose of 40 mg/dL. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Administer a 50% dextrose bolus intravenously.
• B. Administer glucagon intramuscularly.
• C. Provide oral glucose gel.
• D. Recheck the blood glucose level in 15 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a 50% dextrose bolus intravenously. In unconscious clients with hypoglycemia, IV dextrose rapidly raises the blood glucose level. Glucagon would be a slower option and is typically used if IV access is unavailable. Oral glucose gel is not appropriate for an unconscious client as it requires swallowing and may cause aspiration. Rechecking the blood glucose level in 15 minutes delays immediate treatment and could lead to further deterioration.

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