Nursing Elites

1. A client with diabetes insipidus is admitted due to a pituitary tumor. What complication should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Monitor for elevated blood pressure.
• B. Monitor for ketonuria.
• C. Monitor for peripheral edema.
• D. Monitor for hypokalemia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for hypokalemia. In diabetes insipidus, excessive urination can lead to electrolyte imbalances, particularly low potassium levels (hypokalemia). The loss of potassium through increased urination can result in muscle weakness, cardiac dysrhythmias, and other serious complications. Elevated blood pressure (Choice A) is not a typical complication of diabetes insipidus due to pituitary tumors. Ketonuria (Choice B) is more commonly associated with diabetes mellitus due to inadequate insulin levels. Peripheral edema (Choice C) is not a direct complication of diabetes insipidus.

2. An adult male is brought to the emergency department following a motorcycle accident, presenting with periorbital bruising and bloody drainage from both ears. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Rebound abdominal tenderness.
• B. Diminished bilateral breath sounds.
• C. Rib pain with deep inspiration.
• D. Nausea with projectile vomiting.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's presentation with periorbital bruising and bloody ear drainage suggests a basilar skull fracture. Projectile vomiting, as described in choice D, is concerning for increased intracranial pressure due to the skull fracture. This finding warrants immediate intervention to prevent further neurological compromise. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority in this situation. Rebound abdominal tenderness (choice A) is indicative of intra-abdominal injury but is not as urgent as managing potential intracranial issues. Diminished breath sounds (choice B) and rib pain with deep inspiration (choice C) may suggest underlying chest injuries, which need attention but are not as immediately life-threatening as increased intracranial pressure.

3. A male client with HIV on antiretroviral therapy complains of constant hunger and thirst while losing weight. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Check the client's glucose level with a glucometer.
• B. Measure the client's weight accurately.
• C. Reassure the client that weight will stabilize as viral load decreases.
• D. Increase the dose of saquinavir.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to check the client's glucose level with a glucometer. Constant hunger and thirst along with weight loss can be indicative of hyperglycemia, a possible side effect of saquinavir. Monitoring the client's glucose levels is crucial in this situation. Measuring the client's weight accurately (Choice B) is important for monitoring purposes but does not address the immediate concern of hunger, thirst, and weight loss. Reassuring the client that weight will stabilize as viral load decreases (Choice C) is not appropriate in this scenario as the symptoms described need immediate attention. Increasing the dose of saquinavir (Choice D) without assessing the client's glucose level can worsen the hyperglycemia.

4. A client has been given a prescription for tetracycline HCL (Sumycin). The nurse should emphasize the client to

• A. Take the medication with food or milk
• B. Avoid prolonged sun exposure
• C. Monitor for signs of yellowing skin or eyes
• D. Expect a yellow-brown discoloration of the teeth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Monitor for signs of yellowing skin or eyes.' Tetracycline can cause hepatotoxicity, leading to jaundice which may present as yellowing of the skin or eyes. This is a serious side effect that the nurse should emphasize to the client. Choice A is incorrect because tetracycline should generally be taken on an empty stomach, not with food or milk. Choice B is also incorrect as tetracycline can cause photosensitivity, but it is not directly related to yellowing skin or eyes. Choice D is incorrect because tetracycline can cause yellow-brown discoloration of the teeth, but this is usually seen in children under 8 years of age, not a common concern for adult clients.

5. A client with hypertension is prescribed a thiazide diuretic. What dietary recommendation should the nurse make?

• A. Encourage a diet low in carbohydrates and fats.
• B. Avoid foods high in vitamin K, such as spinach and kale.
• C. Increase salt intake to prevent dehydration.
• D. Eat potassium-rich foods like bananas and oranges.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Eat potassium-rich foods like bananas and oranges.' Thiazide diuretics can lead to potassium loss, so it is essential for clients to consume potassium-rich foods to maintain adequate levels. Choice A is incorrect because focusing solely on low carbohydrates and fats does not address the specific issue of potassium loss. Choice B is unrelated as vitamin K content is not a concern with thiazide diuretics. Choice C is incorrect as increasing salt intake would exacerbate hypertension and not prevent dehydration.

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