Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed erythropoietin. What lab value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. White blood cell count.
• B. Hemoglobin level.
• C. Serum creatinine level.
• D. Platelet count.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Erythropoietin therapy stimulates red blood cell production in clients with chronic kidney disease. Hemoglobin levels should be monitored to assess the effectiveness of the therapy and ensure the client is not developing anemia. Increased hemoglobin levels indicate successful treatment, whereas very high levels may suggest erythropoietin is overcorrecting the anemia. Monitoring the white blood cell count is not directly related to erythropoietin therapy for anemia. Serum creatinine level is used to assess kidney function rather than the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Platelet count is not typically affected by erythropoietin therapy and is not a key indicator of its effectiveness.

2. What information should the nurse include in the client's health record after a fall in the bathroom?

• A. Client fell while trying to go to the bathroom
• B. The UAP left the client alone and a fall occurred
• C. The client was found on the floor with no pulse
• D. The client fell, sustaining a fracture to the left hip

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the nurse should document factual, objective information such as the injury sustained by the client. Reporting the specific injury, like a fracture to the left hip, is crucial for accurate medical records. Choices A, B, and C lack specific detail about the injury and focus on different aspects of the fall that are not as pertinent for the health record. Choice A only mentions the fall without specifying the injury, choice B introduces blame without focusing on the client's condition, and choice C adds unnecessary information about the client's pulse which is not directly related to the fall injury.

3. A client with a history of alcohol abuse presents with confusion and unsteady gait. The nurse suspects Wernicke's encephalopathy. Which treatment should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Thiamine supplementation
• B. Folic acid replacement
• C. Intravenous glucose
• D. Magnesium sulfate administration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Wernicke's encephalopathy is a neurological condition commonly caused by a deficiency in thiamine, often seen in clients with chronic alcohol abuse. Thiamine supplementation is the primary treatment to prevent further neurological damage. Folic acid replacement (choice B) is not the correct treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy. Intravenous glucose (choice C) may be necessary in some cases of Wernicke's encephalopathy, but thiamine supplementation takes precedence. Magnesium sulfate administration (choice D) is not indicated as the primary treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy.

4. A client who recently had a hip replacement has a strong odor from the urine and bloody drainage on the surgical dressing. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Obtain a urine sample from the bedpan.
• B. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
• C. Measure the client's oral temperature.
• D. Remove dressing and assess surgical site.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to measure the client's oral temperature. In this scenario, the strong odor from urine and bloody drainage on the surgical dressing are concerning signs that suggest a possible infection. Fever is a common sign of infection, so measuring the client's temperature will help confirm if an infection is present. Obtaining a urine sample, inserting an indwelling urinary catheter, or removing the dressing and assessing the surgical site are not the first priority actions when infection is suspected. These actions may be necessary later but assessing the client's temperature is the initial step to evaluate for infection.

5. When a pediatric client is taking the beta-adrenergic blocking agent propranolol, what signs of overdose should the nurse instruct the parents to report?

• A. Seizures
• B. Increased respiratory rate
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Irritability

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a pediatric client is taking propranolol, the nurse should instruct the parents to report signs of overdose, including bradycardia. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that can lead to dangerously slow heart rate as a sign of overdose. While increased respiratory rate, seizures, and irritability may occur in some cases, bradycardia is the most critical symptom indicating an overdose of this medication.

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