HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam
1. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is admitted with hyperkalemia. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer intravenous calcium gluconate.
- B. Administer intravenous insulin and glucose.
- C. Administer intravenous sodium bicarbonate.
- D. Administer a loop diuretic as prescribed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer intravenous insulin and glucose first. This intervention helps drive potassium back into the cells, lowering serum levels effectively. Administering intravenous calcium gluconate (choice A) is used to stabilize cardiac membranes in severe hyperkalemia but does not address the underlying cause. Administering intravenous sodium bicarbonate (choice C) is used in metabolic acidosis, not hyperkalemia. Administering a loop diuretic (choice D) can help eliminate potassium but is not the first-line treatment for hyperkalemia in CKD.
2. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Shortness of breath
- B. Jugular venous distention
- C. Crackles in the lungs
- D. Elevated liver enzymes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with left-sided heart failure, the presence of crackles in the lungs is the most critical finding that should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. Crackles indicate pulmonary congestion, which requires prompt intervention to prevent respiratory compromise. Shortness of breath, though a common symptom in heart failure, is a result of pulmonary congestion, making crackles a more direct indicator of the severity of the condition. Jugular venous distention and elevated liver enzymes are important to assess in heart failure but are not as immediately concerning as crackles in the lungs, which directly reflect the impact of heart failure on the respiratory system.
3. After multiple attempts to stop drinking, an adult male is admitted to the medical intensive care unit (MICU) with delirium tremens. He is tachycardic, diaphoretic, restless, and disoriented. Which finding indicates a life-threatening condition?
- A. Widening QRS complexes and flat T waves
- B. Tachycardia and elevated blood pressure
- C. Restlessness and anxiety
- D. Diaphoresis and dehydration
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Widening QRS complexes and flat T waves. In the context of an adult male with delirium tremens and symptoms like tachycardia, diaphoresis, restlessness, and disorientation, the presence of widening QRS complexes and flat T waves on an ECG suggests severe electrolyte imbalance, particularly hypokalemia. This severe electrolyte imbalance can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias such as ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation. Tachycardia and elevated blood pressure (choice B) can be expected in delirium tremens but do not directly indicate a life-threatening condition as widening QRS complexes and flat T waves do. Restlessness and anxiety (choice C) are common symptoms of delirium tremens but do not specifically signify a life-threatening condition. Diaphoresis and dehydration (choice D) are also common in delirium tremens but do not directly point towards a life-threatening electrolyte imbalance as widening QRS complexes and flat T waves do.
4. A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which assessment finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
- B. Heart rate of 80 beats per minute
- C. Fever of 100.4°F
- D. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A fever of 100.4°F is most concerning in a client with ESRD scheduled for hemodialysis as it may indicate an underlying infection, which can lead to serious complications in this population. Elevated body temperature can be a sign of sepsis, which requires immediate attention to prevent further deterioration. Reporting this finding promptly allows for timely intervention. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not pose an immediate threat to the client's well-being in the context of preparing for hemodialysis.
5. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with jaundice and ascites. Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?
- A. Serum albumin of 3.0 g/dL
- B. Serum bilirubin of 3.0 mg/dL
- C. Serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL
- D. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL is most concerning in a client with cirrhosis as it may indicate hepatic encephalopathy, requiring immediate intervention. High serum ammonia levels can lead to altered mental status, confusion, and even coma. Serum albumin (choice A) is often decreased in cirrhosis but does not require immediate intervention. Serum bilirubin (choice B) elevation is expected in cirrhosis and may not require immediate intervention unless very high. Serum sodium (choice D) within the given range is generally acceptable and does not require immediate intervention.
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