Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of substance abuse is admitted to the hospital for treatment of a new illness. Which of the following is the most important to assess upon admission?

• A. History of recent drug use.
• B. Current employment status.
• C. Family history of mental illness.
• D. Recent weight changes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing the history of recent drug use is crucial when admitting a client with a history of substance abuse. Understanding recent drug use helps in managing potential withdrawal symptoms, preventing drug interactions with the new treatment, and ensuring appropriate care. Assessing current employment status (choice B) is important for social and financial support but is not as crucial as assessing recent drug use in this scenario. Family history of mental illness (choice C) and recent weight changes (choice D) are also important aspects of assessment but are not as immediate and critical as evaluating recent drug use in a client with a history of substance abuse.

2. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is receiving a new prescription for fluoxetine (Prozac). Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of this medication?

• A. “I should begin feeling less anxious within a few weeks.”
• B. “The drug will help me control my compulsive behaviors.”
• C. “I will need to have a weekly blood test to check my liver function.”
• D. “I should avoid foods that contain tyramine while taking this medication.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Fluoxetine, an SSRI, can help manage symptoms of OCD by assisting in controlling compulsive behaviors rather than directly reducing anxiety. The improvement in symptoms usually occurs over a few weeks. Choice A is incorrect as it provides a timeframe for anxiety improvement, which is not the primary goal of fluoxetine in OCD treatment. Choice C is incorrect as routine blood tests are not typically required with fluoxetine. Choice D is incorrect as avoiding tyramine-containing foods is more relevant for MAOIs, not SSRIs like fluoxetine.

3. A male veteran who recently returned from a war zone has post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and is admitted to the psychiatric ward due to admitted suicidal ideation. On admission, the client’s family informed the healthcare provider that therapy sessions did not seem to be helping. Select only one intervention that has the highest priority.

• A. Administer paroxetine 40 mg as prescribed.
• B. Develop a list of therapy programs.
• C. Remove all shaving equipment.
• D. Determine if the client has a suicide plan.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The highest priority intervention in this scenario is to ensure the safety of the client who is admitted due to suicidal ideation. Removing all shaving equipment is crucial to prevent self-harm or suicide attempts using sharp objects. Administering medication or developing a list of therapy programs can be important but ensuring immediate safety takes precedence. Determining if the client has a suicide plan is also essential but not as urgent as removing potential means for self-harm.

4. A male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. What intervention is best for the nurse to implement?

• A. Avoid acknowledging the behavior.
• B. Isolate the client from other clients.
• C. Administer a PRN sedative.
• D. Escort the client to his room.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best intervention for a male client with schizophrenia displaying echolalia, which is disruptive to others, is for the nurse to escort the client to his room. Echolalia, the constant repetition of others' words, can be disruptive in a communal setting. By guiding the client to a private space like his room, the nurse helps manage the behavior without isolating or medicating the client unnecessarily. Avoiding acknowledging the behavior (Choice A) does not address the issue, isolating the client (Choice B) may exacerbate feelings of exclusion, and administering a PRN sedative (Choice C) should be reserved for situations where there is imminent risk or severe agitation, not for managing echolalia.

5. A client is being educated by a healthcare professional about initiating a prescribed abstinence therapy using Disulfiram (Antabuse). What information should the client acknowledge understanding?

• A. Admit to others that they are a substance abuser.
• B. Remain alcohol-free for 12 hours before taking the first dose.
• C. Attend monthly Alcoholics Anonymous meetings.
• D. Completely abstain from heroin or cocaine use.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: B: Before starting Disulfiram therapy, it is crucial for clients to be alcohol-free for a minimum of 12 hours to prevent adverse reactions. A: Admitting substance abuse is important, but it is not directly linked to the initiation of Disulfiram therapy. C: Attending Alcoholics Anonymous meetings is beneficial for support but not a specific requirement for starting Disulfiram. D: The focus of Disulfiram therapy is on alcohol abstinence, so abstaining from heroin or cocaine is not directly related to this medication.

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