Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease is admitted with severe epigastric pain. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Nausea and vomiting.
• B. Hematemesis.
• C. Melena.
• D. Rebound tenderness.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with a history of peptic ulcer disease presenting with severe epigastric pain, the finding that requires immediate intervention is rebound tenderness. Rebound tenderness can indicate peritonitis, a serious condition that necessitates immediate medical attention. Nausea and vomiting, hematemesis, and melena are also concerning symptoms in a client with a history of peptic ulcer disease, but they do not signify the urgency of intervention as rebound tenderness does.

2. The healthcare provider is developing a community outreach program to address childhood obesity. Which intervention should the healthcare provider implement first?

• A. conduct a survey to assess dietary habits and physical activity levels
• B. develop educational materials on healthy eating and exercise
• C. partner with local schools to promote physical activity programs
• D. organize community events that encourage healthy lifestyle choices

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Conducting a survey to assess dietary habits and physical activity levels should be the initial step in developing a community outreach program to address childhood obesity. By gathering data through a survey, the healthcare provider can identify specific needs, preferences, and challenges within the community. This information is crucial for designing tailored interventions that are more likely to be effective. Developing educational materials (Choice B) can come after understanding the community's needs through the survey. Partnering with local schools (Choice C) and organizing community events (Choice D) are important strategies but should be planned based on the data obtained from the survey to ensure relevance and impact.

3. A nurse is planning a community health fair to promote cancer awareness. Which activity should be included to best engage participants?

• A. free cancer screenings
• B. lectures on cancer prevention
• C. distribution of educational materials
• D. testimonials from cancer survivors

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Offering free cancer screenings should be included in the community health fair to best engage participants. This activity provides immediate, valuable information about participants' cancer risk, making it highly engaging and actionable. While lectures on cancer prevention and distribution of educational materials are informative, they may not offer the same level of immediate engagement and impact as free screenings. Testimonials from cancer survivors, although inspiring, do not provide participants with direct information about their own cancer risk, making them less effective in engaging participants actively.

4. A community health nurse is developing a program to reduce the incidence of teen pregnancy. Which strategy is most likely to be effective?

• A. Distribute free condoms at local high schools
• B. Offer comprehensive sex education classes
• C. Promote abstinence-only education
• D. Provide access to reproductive health services

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Comprehensive sex education has been shown to be more effective in reducing teen pregnancy rates compared to abstinence-only education. Providing comprehensive sex education equips teens with knowledge about safe sex practices, contraception methods, and healthy relationships, which empowers them to make informed decisions. Distributing free condoms and providing access to reproductive health services are important components, but without proper education, teens may not understand how to use these resources effectively. Promoting abstinence-only education limits information and may not address the reality of teen sexual behavior, potentially leading to higher pregnancy rates.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with pneumonia who is receiving oxygen therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. The client's respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute.
• B. The client's arterial blood gases show a pH of 7.35.
• C. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• D. The client's breath sounds are clear.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute indicates effective oxygen therapy. In pneumonia, the respiratory rate typically increases due to the body's effort to improve oxygenation. Option B (pH of 7.35) is related to acid-base balance, not specifically indicating oxygen therapy effectiveness. Option C (oxygen saturation of 92%) is below the normal range (95-100%), suggesting the need for oxygen therapy. Option D (clear breath sounds) is a positive finding but not a direct indicator of oxygen therapy effectiveness.

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