HESI RN
Community Health HESI
1. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 88%
- B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
- C. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute
- D. Productive cough with green sputum
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client with COPD admitted with pneumonia, a productive cough with green sputum indicates a potential bacterial infection. Green sputum is commonly associated with bacterial pneumonia, which requires immediate intervention with appropriate antibiotics. Monitoring oxygen saturation, respiratory rate, and heart rate are essential in COPD patients, but the presence of green sputum suggests an urgent need for targeted treatment to address the underlying infection. Oxygen saturation of 88% is concerning but may not directly indicate the need for immediate intervention in the absence of other critical symptoms. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute and a heart rate of 90 beats per minute are within normal limits and may not be indicative of an acute issue requiring immediate intervention in this context.
2. A client who is receiving intravenous heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Continue the heparin infusion as prescribed.
- B. Decrease the heparin infusion rate.
- C. Increase the heparin infusion rate.
- D. Stop the heparin infusion and notify the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is significantly elevated, indicating a high risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. In this case, the heparin infusion should be stopped immediately to prevent further anticoagulation and an increased bleeding risk. Notifying the healthcare provider is essential to discuss alternative anticoagulation strategies or interventions. Continuing heparin therapy without action could lead to severe bleeding complications. Decreasing or increasing the heparin infusion rate would exacerbate the risk of bleeding, making options A, B, and C incorrect.
3. An elderly client with a history of falls is being discharged from the hospital. Which intervention should the home health nurse implement to reduce the client's risk of falling at home?
- A. Install grab bars in the bathroom
- B. Provide a walker for ambulation
- C. Educate the client on fall prevention strategies
- D. Refer the client to a physical therapist
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Installing grab bars in the bathroom is crucial to reducing the elderly client's risk of falling at home. Grab bars provide physical support and stability, especially in areas like the bathroom where slips and falls are common among older adults. While providing a walker for ambulation (Choice B) can assist with mobility, it may not directly address the environmental hazards at home. Educating the client on fall prevention strategies (Choice C) is important but may not be sufficient if the physical environment is not modified to reduce fall risks. Referring the client to a physical therapist (Choice D) may help improve strength and balance but does not directly address the immediate environmental risk of falling at home.
4. A client with a history of epilepsy is admitted with status epilepticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?
- A. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
- B. Lorazepam (Ativan)
- C. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
- D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, the initial medication of choice is a benzodiazepine such as lorazepam (Ativan) to rapidly terminate the seizure activity. Lorazepam acts quickly and effectively in stopping seizures. Phenytoin (Dilantin) is often used as a second-line agent for status epilepticus, and carbamazepine (Tegretol) is not typically indicated for the acute treatment of status epilepticus. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is a pain reliever and antipyretic but is not used in the treatment of status epilepticus.
5. A client is suspected of being poisoned and presents with symmetric, descending flaccid paralysis, blurred vision, double vision, and dry mouth. The nurse should consider these findings consistent with which potential bioterrorism agent?
- A. ricin
- B. botulism toxin
- C. sulfur mustard
- D. yersinia pestis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: botulism toxin. The symptoms described, including symmetric, descending flaccid paralysis, blurred vision, double vision, and dry mouth, are classic manifestations of botulism, which is caused by a toxin produced by Clostridium botulinum. This toxin affects the nervous system, leading to muscle weakness and paralysis. Choice A, ricin, typically presents with gastrointestinal symptoms and organ failure. Choice C, sulfur mustard, causes blistering skin and respiratory issues. Choice D, yersinia pestis, is associated with the plague and presents with fever, chills, weakness, and swollen lymph nodes.
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