Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is admitted with hyperkalemia. Which clinical finding is most concerning?

• A. Peaked T waves on the ECG
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Muscle weakness
• D. Decreased deep tendon reflexes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Peaked T waves on the ECG are the most concerning finding in a client with hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac complications, including arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. Peaked T waves are a classic ECG finding associated with hyperkalemia and indicate the need for immediate intervention. Bradycardia, muscle weakness, and decreased deep tendon reflexes can also be seen in hyperkalemia, but the presence of peaked T waves signifies a higher risk of cardiac events, making it the most concerning finding in this scenario.

2. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with ascites and jaundice. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Confusion and altered mental status
• C. Increased abdominal girth
• D. Yellowing of the skin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Confusion and altered mental status are concerning signs of hepatic encephalopathy in a client with cirrhosis. Hepatic encephalopathy is a serious complication of liver disease that requires immediate intervention. Peripheral edema may be present due to fluid accumulation, increased abdominal girth can indicate ascites which is common in cirrhosis, and yellowing of the skin is a typical manifestation of jaundice in liver dysfunction, all of which are important but not as immediately concerning as signs of hepatic encephalopathy.

3. The nurse enters a client's room to administer scheduled daily medications and observes the client leaning forward and using pursed lip breathing. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement first?

• A. Evaluate the oxygen saturation.
• B. Administer a bronchodilator.
• C. Assist the client to sit upright.
• D. Encourage slow, deep breathing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should first evaluate the oxygen saturation. This action is crucial as it provides immediate information on the client's respiratory status. Assessing the oxygen saturation can help determine the adequacy of oxygenation and guide further interventions. Administering a bronchodilator (Choice B) may be necessary based on assessment findings, but it should not be the first action without knowing the oxygen saturation level. While assisting the client to sit upright (Choice C) is generally beneficial for respiratory function, in this case, assessing oxygen saturation takes precedence. Encouraging slow, deep breathing (Choice D) can be helpful, but it is secondary to evaluating the oxygen saturation in this situation.

4. What is the most important instruction for the nurse to provide a client being discharged following treatment for Guillain-Barre syndrome?

• A. Avoid exposure to respiratory infections.
• B. Use relaxation exercises when anxious.
• C. Continue physical therapy at home.
• D. Plan short, frequent rest periods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most critical instruction for a client being discharged following treatment for Guillain-Barre syndrome is to avoid exposure to respiratory infections. Guillain-Barre syndrome can affect the respiratory system, making infections particularly dangerous. While relaxation exercises, physical therapy, and rest periods are beneficial for overall well-being and recovery, preventing respiratory infections takes precedence due to the potential life-threatening complications associated with respiratory compromise in Guillain-Barre syndrome.

5. The nurse is preparing a 50 ml dose of 50% dextrose IV for a client with insulin shock. What is the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Dilute the dextrose in one liter of 0.9% Normal Saline solution.
• B. Mix the dextrose in a 50 ml piggyback for a total volume of 100 ml.
• C. Push the undiluted dextrose slowly through the current IV infusion.
• D. Ask the pharmacist to add the dextrose to a TPN solution.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct immediate intervention by the nurse in this situation is to push the undiluted 50% dextrose slowly through the current IV infusion. This is because in cases of insulin shock, where the client has dangerously low blood sugar levels, administering 50% dextrose directly into the bloodstream helps rapidly increase blood glucose levels. Choice A is incorrect because diluting the dextrose in one liter of normal saline would delay the administration of glucose, which is needed urgently. Choice B is incorrect as mixing the dextrose in a piggyback solution would also delay the administration of the concentrated dextrose. Choice D is incorrect because adding dextrose to a TPN solution is not the immediate intervention needed to address the low blood sugar levels in a client experiencing insulin shock.

Similar Questions