a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin what is the nurses priority teaching
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. What is the nurse's priority teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid foods high in vitamin K.' Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by interfering with vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Therefore, consuming foods high in vitamin K can affect the medication's effectiveness. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because: A) Warfarin is not affected by foods high in potassium; C) Warfarin should be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects; D) There is no specific requirement for taking warfarin at bedtime for best results.

2. A client with chronic liver disease is prescribed lactulose. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum ammonia level. Lactulose is used to lower serum ammonia levels in clients with chronic liver disease, particularly in cases of hepatic encephalopathy. Monitoring serum ammonia levels is crucial to evaluate the effectiveness of lactulose in managing hepatic encephalopathy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to the action or evaluation of lactulose in chronic liver disease.

3. A client who had a subtotal parathyroidectomy two days ago is now preparing for discharge. Which assessment finding requires immediate provider notification?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign suggests hypocalcemia, which is a post-parathyroidectomy complication and requires prompt treatment. The other options are less urgent: being afebrile with a normal pulse is expected, no bowel movement since surgery can be managed with interventions like early ambulation and stool softeners, and no appetite for breakfast is common postoperatively and can be addressed without immediate provider notification.

4. What assessment is most important for the nurse to perform for a client with dehydration receiving IV fluids?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client’s electrolyte levels. When a client is receiving IV fluids for dehydration, it is crucial to assess their electrolyte levels regularly. Dehydration can lead to imbalances in electrolytes, especially sodium and potassium, which are essential for maintaining fluid balance and proper organ function. Checking urine output (Choice B) is important but not as critical as monitoring electrolyte levels. Assessing skin turgor (Choice C) is an indirect method of assessing dehydration but does not provide specific information about electrolyte imbalances. Monitoring blood pressure (Choice D) is important but not the most critical assessment in this scenario as electrolyte imbalances can have a more direct impact on the client's condition.

5. A client with COPD and a history of emphysema presents with increasing shortness of breath. What action should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement first is to auscultate the client's lung sounds and oxygen saturation. This helps in assessing the respiratory status of the client, which is crucial in managing COPD and emphysema exacerbations. Checking for any abnormalities in lung sounds and monitoring oxygen saturation levels can provide important information for immediate intervention. Option A is not the first action to take in this situation as directly assessing the client's respiratory status is more immediate. Option C, determining if the client is experiencing anxiety, is important but should come after assessing the physical respiratory status. Option D, assessing the oxygen delivery system, is also essential but should follow the direct assessment of the client's respiratory status.

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