a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin what is the nurses priority teaching
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. What is the nurse's priority teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid foods high in vitamin K.' Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by interfering with vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Therefore, consuming foods high in vitamin K can affect the medication's effectiveness. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because: A) Warfarin is not affected by foods high in potassium; C) Warfarin should be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects; D) There is no specific requirement for taking warfarin at bedtime for best results.

2. A client is admitted with a large pleural effusion. Which procedure should the nurse prepare the client for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The correct procedure for a client with a large pleural effusion is thoracentesis. Thoracentesis is a diagnostic and therapeutic procedure used to remove fluid from the pleural space, which can help relieve symptoms associated with pleural effusion. Choice B (Endotracheal intubation) is incorrect as it is a procedure to secure the airway by placing a tube into the trachea. Choice C (Chest tube insertion) is incorrect as it is typically done to drain air or fluid from the pleural space over a longer period. Choice D (Bronchoscopy) is incorrect as it is a procedure used to visualize the airways and diagnose lung conditions, not specifically for pleural effusion removal.

3. A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) reports nausea and dizziness. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) reports symptoms like nausea and dizziness, the first action the nurse should take is to check the client's vital signs and blood pressure. This assessment helps determine the client's overall stability and can provide crucial information to guide further interventions. Checking the blood glucose level (Choice A) may be relevant but is not the priority in this situation. Decreasing the infusion rate of TPN (Choice C) may be necessary but should be based on assessment findings. Administering antiemetic medication (Choice D) should not be the initial action without first assessing the client's vital signs.

4. A client undergoing chemotherapy reports extreme fatigue. What should the nurse recommend to manage this symptom?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct recommendation for managing chemotherapy-induced fatigue is to advise the client to rest when needed and maintain a balanced diet. Increasing the dose of chemotherapy (Choice A) would exacerbate the fatigue and other side effects. While light physical activity (Choice C) can be beneficial, extreme fatigue may require more rest initially. Delaying chemotherapy treatment (Choice D) should only be considered after consultation with the healthcare provider, as timely treatment is usually crucial in cancer care.

5. The nurse is planning to administer two medications at 0900. Which property of the drugs indicates a need to monitor the client for toxicity?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Highly protein-bound.' Drugs that are highly protein-bound can displace from protein-binding sites, leading to increased free drug levels in the blood, which can result in toxicity. Monitoring the client for toxicity is crucial when administering highly protein-bound drugs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A short half-life does not necessarily indicate a need for monitoring toxicity; a high therapeutic index indicates a wide safety margin between the effective dose and the toxic dose, reducing the risk of toxicity; low bioavailability refers to the fraction of the drug that reaches the systemic circulation unchanged and does not directly relate to the risk of toxicity.

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