Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. What is the nurse's priority teaching?

• A. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
• B. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Take the medication at bedtime for best results.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid foods high in vitamin K.' Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by interfering with vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Therefore, consuming foods high in vitamin K can affect the medication's effectiveness. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because: A) Warfarin is not affected by foods high in potassium; C) Warfarin should be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects; D) There is no specific requirement for taking warfarin at bedtime for best results.

2. Which of these clients, all in the terminal stage of cancer, is least appropriate to suggest the use of patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) with a pump?

• A. A young adult with a history of Down syndrome
• B. A teenager who reads at a 4th-grade level
• C. An elderly client with numerous arthritic nodules on the hands
• D. A preschooler with intermittent alertness episodes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A preschooler with intermittent alertness episodes is not a suitable candidate for patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) due to their inability to effectively manage the system. In the context of terminal cancer, it is crucial for the patient to be able to utilize the PCA system appropriately to manage pain effectively. Preschoolers may not have the cognitive ability or understanding to operate a PCA pump compared to the other clients. Choices A, B, and C present clients with conditions that do not inherently impede their ability to use a PCA pump effectively.

3. A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) reports nausea and dizziness. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Check the client's blood glucose level.
• B. Check the client's vital signs and blood pressure.
• C. Decrease the infusion rate of TPN.
• D. Administer antiemetic medication as prescribed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) reports symptoms like nausea and dizziness, the first action the nurse should take is to check the client's vital signs and blood pressure. This assessment helps determine the client's overall stability and can provide crucial information to guide further interventions. Checking the blood glucose level (Choice A) may be relevant but is not the priority in this situation. Decreasing the infusion rate of TPN (Choice C) may be necessary but should be based on assessment findings. Administering antiemetic medication (Choice D) should not be the initial action without first assessing the client's vital signs.

4. The nurse is providing care for a client with schizophrenia who receives haloperidol decanoate 75 mg IM every 4 weeks. The client begins developing puckering and smacking of the lips and facial grimacing. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Discontinue the medication immediately
• B. Increase the dose of haloperidol
• C. Complete the abnormal involuntary movement scale (AIMS)
• D. Monitor the client for signs of agitation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: These symptoms are characteristic of tardive dyskinesia, a side effect of long-term antipsychotic use. The nurse should assess the severity of these movements using the AIMS scale and report to the healthcare provider for further management. Discontinuing the medication abruptly (Choice A) can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of the condition. Increasing the dose of haloperidol (Choice B) can exacerbate the symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. Monitoring for signs of agitation (Choice D) is important but does not address the specific side effect described.

5. A client is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory result would the nurse expect to find in this client?

• A. pH level of 7.45
• B. Serum calcium of 15 mg/dL
• C. Blood glucose of 450 mg/dL
• D. Sodium level of 120 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients with diabetic ketoacidosis typically present with elevated blood glucose levels, often above 300 mg/dL. This high blood glucose level, along with other symptoms, helps confirm the diagnosis of DKA. A pH level of 7.45 would be indicative of alkalosis, not the acidosis seen in DKA. A serum calcium level of 15 mg/dL is significantly elevated and is not a typical finding in DKA. A sodium level of 120 mEq/L indicates hyponatremia, which is not a characteristic laboratory finding in DKA.

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