Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. What is the nurse's priority teaching?

• A. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
• B. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Take the medication at bedtime for best results.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid foods high in vitamin K.' Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by interfering with vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Therefore, consuming foods high in vitamin K can affect the medication's effectiveness. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because: A) Warfarin is not affected by foods high in potassium; C) Warfarin should be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects; D) There is no specific requirement for taking warfarin at bedtime for best results.

2. A combination multi-drug cocktail is being considered for an asymptomatic HIV-infected client with a CD4 cell count of 500. Which nursing assessment of the client is most crucial in determining whether therapy should be initiated?

• A. Presence of viral symptoms
• B. Engages in high-risk behaviors
• C. Willingness to comply with complex drug schedules
• D. History of opportunistic infections

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most crucial nursing assessment in determining whether therapy should be initiated for an asymptomatic HIV-infected client with a CD4 cell count of 500 is the client's willingness to comply with complex drug schedules. Adherence to antiretroviral therapy is essential for its effectiveness. Assessing the client's willingness and ability to comply with the complex medication regimen is crucial to ensure successful treatment and prevent drug resistance. Choices A, B, and D, although important in the overall care of the client, are not as crucial as assessing the client's willingness to adhere to the prescribed drug regimen.

3. A client with type 1 diabetes is found unconscious with a blood glucose of 40 mg/dL. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Administer a 50% dextrose bolus intravenously.
• B. Administer glucagon intramuscularly.
• C. Provide oral glucose gel.
• D. Recheck the blood glucose level in 15 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a 50% dextrose bolus intravenously. In unconscious clients with hypoglycemia, IV dextrose rapidly raises the blood glucose level. Glucagon would be a slower option and is typically used if IV access is unavailable. Oral glucose gel is not appropriate for an unconscious client as it requires swallowing and may cause aspiration. Rechecking the blood glucose level in 15 minutes delays immediate treatment and could lead to further deterioration.

4. A client is prescribed metformin for type 2 diabetes. What should the nurse emphasize in the client's teaching?

• A. Take the medication with meals to reduce the risk of GI upset.
• B. Report any muscle pain to the healthcare provider promptly.
• C. Avoid alcohol consumption while taking this medication.
• D. Monitor blood sugar levels regularly to prevent hypoglycemia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid alcohol consumption while taking metformin. Alcohol can increase the risk of lactic acidosis when combined with metformin. Choice A is incorrect because metformin is usually recommended to be taken with meals to reduce GI upset. Choice B is important but not the priority; muscle pain is more commonly associated with other diabetes medications. Choice D is incorrect because metformin typically does not cause hypoglycemia but rather helps control blood sugar levels in type 2 diabetes.

5. A client with a history of alcohol abuse presents with confusion and unsteady gait. The nurse suspects Wernicke's encephalopathy. Which treatment should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Thiamine supplementation
• B. Folic acid replacement
• C. Intravenous glucose
• D. Magnesium sulfate administration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Wernicke's encephalopathy is a neurological condition commonly caused by a deficiency in thiamine, often seen in clients with chronic alcohol abuse. Thiamine supplementation is the primary treatment to prevent further neurological damage. Folic acid replacement (choice B) is not the correct treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy. Intravenous glucose (choice C) may be necessary in some cases of Wernicke's encephalopathy, but thiamine supplementation takes precedence. Magnesium sulfate administration (choice D) is not indicated as the primary treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy.

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