HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone
1. When assessing a client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder who reports taking a handful of medications, what information is most important to obtain?
- A. What drugs the client used in the suicide attempt.
- B. When the client last took medications for bipolar disorder.
- C. Whether the client has attempted suicide before.
- D. Which family member has the suicide note.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain information on what drugs the client used in the suicide attempt. This information is crucial for assessing the severity of the overdose, potential drug interactions, and determining the appropriate treatment plan. Choice B is not as urgent as identifying the drugs taken during the suicide attempt. Choice C, while important, is not as immediately critical as knowing the specific medications involved. Choice D is unrelated to the immediate medical needs of the client.
2. An older client who had a subtotal parathyroidectomy is preparing for discharge. What finding requires immediate provider notification?
- A. Afebrile with a normal pulse.
- B. No bowel movement since surgery.
- C. No appetite for breakfast.
- D. A positive Chvostek's sign.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign indicates hypocalcemia, a complication after parathyroid surgery that requires immediate attention. This sign is manifested by facial muscle twitching when the facial nerve in front of the ear is tapped, indicating neuromuscular irritability due to low calcium levels. Afebrile with a normal pulse (Choice A) is a normal finding and does not require immediate notification. No bowel movement since surgery (Choice B) is common postoperatively due to anesthesia effects and pain medications and usually resolves within a few days; it does not require immediate notification unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms. No appetite for breakfast (Choice C) is a common postoperative finding and does not require immediate notification unless it persists and leads to dehydration or malnutrition.
3. A client scheduled for a bronchoscopy in the morning is anxious and asking the nurse numerous questions about the procedure. Which intervention has the highest priority in preparing the client for the procedure?
- A. Provide detailed education about the procedure
- B. Administer prescribed anti-anxiety medication
- C. Instruct client to write down the questions
- D. Reassure the client about the safety of the procedure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Encouraging the client to write down questions is the highest priority as it allows the nurse to address concerns systematically, reducing anxiety. This approach empowers the client and ensures that all concerns are covered before the procedure, reducing the risk of miscommunication or unaddressed fears. Providing detailed education about the procedure (choice A) is important but may not address the client's immediate anxiety. Administering anti-anxiety medication (choice B) should only be done if other interventions are ineffective or if prescribed by the healthcare provider. Reassuring the client about the safety of the procedure (choice D) is essential but may not address the specific questions and concerns causing anxiety.
4. A client with acute pancreatitis is receiving nothing by mouth (NPO) status. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Administer antiemetic medication as prescribed.
- B. Monitor the client's intake and output.
- C. Provide mouth care to keep the client comfortable.
- D. Elevate the client's head of the bed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor the client's intake and output. When a client with acute pancreatitis is on NPO status, the nurse's priority intervention is to monitor the client's intake and output. This is crucial to assess for signs of dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and to ensure the client is responding appropriately to treatment. Administering antiemetic medication (choice A) may be necessary for managing nausea and vomiting but is not the priority over monitoring intake and output. Providing mouth care (choice C) and elevating the client's head of the bed (choice D) are important aspects of care but do not take precedence over monitoring intake and output to prevent complications in clients with NPO status due to acute pancreatitis.
5. When assessing a recently delivered multigravida client, the nurse finds that her vaginal bleeding is more than expected. Which factor in this client's history is related to this finding?
- A. The client delivered a large baby
- B. She is a gravida 6, para 5
- C. The client had a cesarean delivery
- D. The client had a prolonged labor
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A client with a higher gravida and para count is at greater risk for uterine atony, which can lead to postpartum hemorrhage. The uterus may be less effective at contracting after multiple pregnancies, causing increased vaginal bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because delivering a large baby, having a cesarean delivery, or experiencing prolonged labor do not directly correlate with an increased risk of postpartum hemorrhage in a multigravida client as compared to the gravida and para count.
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