HESI RN
Pharmacology HESI Quizlet
1. A client is taking Humulin NPH insulin daily every morning. The nurse reinforces instructions for the client and tells the client that the most likely time for a hypoglycemic reaction to occur is:
- A. 2 to 4 hours after administration
- B. 4 to 12 hours after administration
- C. 16 to 18 hours after administration
- D. 18 to 24 hours after administration
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Humulin NPH is an intermediate-acting insulin with a peak action time of 4 to 12 hours after administration. During this period, the risk of hypoglycemic reactions is highest. It is important for the client to be aware of this timing to prevent, recognize, and manage hypoglycemia effectively.
2. Rifabutin (Mycobutin) is prescribed for a client with active Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) disease and tuberculosis. The nurse monitors for which side effects of the medication? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Signs of hepatitis
- B. Flu-like syndrome
- C. Low neutrophil count
- D. Vitamin B6 deficiency
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Rifabutin is known to cause side effects such as hepatitis, flu-like syndrome, low neutrophil count, and ocular pain or blurred vision. Vitamin B6 deficiency is not associated with rifabutin but is a side effect of isoniazid (INH). Therefore, the nurse should not monitor for Vitamin B6 deficiency when administering rifabutin.
3. A client is receiving dietary instructions from a nurse regarding warfarin sodium (Coumadin) therapy. The nurse advises the client to avoid which food item?
- A. Grapes
- B. Spinach
- C. Watermelon
- D. Cottage cheese
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Spinach. Spinach is high in vitamin K, which antagonizes the effects of warfarin sodium, an anticoagulant medication. Clients taking warfarin should avoid consuming foods rich in vitamin K, like spinach, to maintain the medication's effectiveness. Grapes (choice A), watermelon (choice C), and cottage cheese (choice D) do not interfere with the effects of warfarin, so they are safe for the client to consume while on warfarin therapy.
4. A client with portosystemic encephalopathy is receiving oral lactulose (Chronulac) daily. The nurse assesses which of the following to determine medication effectiveness?
- A. Lung sounds
- B. Blood pressure
- C. Blood ammonia level
- D. Serum potassium level
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In portosystemic encephalopathy, the liver's ability to detoxify ammonia is impaired, leading to elevated blood ammonia levels, which can cause neurological symptoms such as encephalopathy. Lactulose is given to reduce ammonia levels by promoting its excretion through the bowel. Therefore, assessing the blood ammonia level is crucial to determine the effectiveness of lactulose therapy in managing portosystemic encephalopathy.
5. While assisting in caring for a pregnant client receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia management, a nurse notes the client's absent deep tendon reflexes. What determination should the nurse make based on this data?
- A. The magnesium sulfate is effective.
- B. The infusion rate needs to be increased.
- C. The client is experiencing cerebral edema.
- D. The client is experiencing magnesium toxicity.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a pregnant client receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia management exhibits absent deep tendon reflexes, this indicates magnesium toxicity. Magnesium toxicity can occur as a complication of magnesium sulfate therapy, leading to suppressed reflexes. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize this sign promptly and report it to prevent further complications or harm to the client.
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