a client is suspected of having a stroke what is the nurses priority action
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. When a client is suspected of having a stroke, what is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to perform a neurological assessment. When a stroke is suspected, the priority action is to assess the client neurologically to determine the extent of brain injury and identify any immediate risks, such as impaired airway, speech deficits, or loss of motor function. This assessment helps in early recognition of signs that are essential for timely intervention and guides further treatment, such as administering tissue plasminogen activator (tPA), if appropriate. Positioning the client in a supine position or checking the blood glucose level can be important but not the priority when a stroke is suspected.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed erythropoietin. What lab value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Erythropoietin therapy stimulates red blood cell production in clients with chronic kidney disease. Hemoglobin levels should be monitored to assess the effectiveness of the therapy and ensure the client is not developing anemia. Increased hemoglobin levels indicate successful treatment, whereas very high levels may suggest erythropoietin is overcorrecting the anemia. Monitoring the white blood cell count is not directly related to erythropoietin therapy for anemia. Serum creatinine level is used to assess kidney function rather than the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Platelet count is not typically affected by erythropoietin therapy and is not a key indicator of its effectiveness.

3. During an excretory urogram, which observation made by the nurse indicates a complication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a whole-body bright red color indicates a severe reaction to the contrast dye and must be addressed immediately. Choices A, C, and D do not indicate a severe complication during an excretory urogram. Choice A is a common side effect of the dye, choice C could be a normal sensation due to the injection, and choice D may indicate nausea which is less severe compared to a whole-body red color reaction.

4. A 4-year-old child is returned to the room following a tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. Which of the following assessments would require the nurse's immediate attention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a post-tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy patient, frequent swallowing is a crucial assessment that requires immediate attention by the nurse. Frequent swallowing can indicate bleeding, a complication that needs urgent intervention. Coughing may be expected due to irritation from the surgery but is not as concerning as potential bleeding. Slow breathing and tachycardia are not typically immediate concerns following this type of surgery.

5. A client with diabetes insipidus is admitted due to a pituitary tumor. What complication should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for hypokalemia. In diabetes insipidus, excessive urination can lead to electrolyte imbalances, particularly low potassium levels (hypokalemia). The loss of potassium through increased urination can result in muscle weakness, cardiac dysrhythmias, and other serious complications. Elevated blood pressure (Choice A) is not a typical complication of diabetes insipidus due to pituitary tumors. Ketonuria (Choice B) is more commonly associated with diabetes mellitus due to inadequate insulin levels. Peripheral edema (Choice C) is not a direct complication of diabetes insipidus.

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