Nursing Elites

1. A client is recovering from a hip replacement and is taking Tylenol #3 every 3 hours for pain. In checking the client, which finding suggests a side effect of the analgesic?

• A. Bruising at the operative site
• B. Elevated heart rate
• C. Decreased platelet count
• D. No bowel movement for 3 days

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Constipation is a common side effect of Tylenol #3, which contains codeine. Codeine can slow down bowel movements, leading to constipation. Monitoring for constipation and implementing management strategies is crucial. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because bruising at the operative site, elevated heart rate, and decreased platelet count are not commonly associated side effects of Tylenol #3.

2. After a client was taken off the ventilator following surgery, they have a nasogastric tube draining bile-colored liquids. Which nursing measure will provide the most comfort to the client?

• A. Allow the client to suck on ice chips
• B. Provide mints to freshen the breath
• C. Perform frequent oral care with a tooth sponge
• D. Swab the mouth with glycerin swabs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Performing frequent oral care with a tooth sponge is the most appropriate nursing measure to provide comfort to a client with a nasogastric tube draining bile-colored liquids. This measure helps to maintain oral hygiene, prevent dryness, and enhance overall comfort. Allowing the client to suck on ice chips may not address oral hygiene needs, providing mints focuses more on breath freshness rather than comfort, and swabbing the mouth with glycerin swabs may not effectively address oral care needs.

3. In a client with chronic kidney disease having a serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L, which assessment is the most critical for the nurse to perform?

• A. Neurological status
• B. Cardiac status
• C. Respiratory status
• D. Gastrointestinal status

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Assessing cardiac status is crucial in hyperkalemia as high potassium levels can result in life-threatening arrhythmias. Monitoring the heart rhythm and ECG findings is essential to prevent cardiac complications. Neurological status, respiratory status, and gastrointestinal status are important assessments too, but in the context of hyperkalemia, cardiac status takes precedence due to the immediate risk of cardiac arrhythmias.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing dyspnea. Which of these actions should the nurse perform first?

• A. Administer oxygen therapy
• B. Encourage the client to perform deep breathing exercises
• C. Raise the head of the bed
• D. Check the client's oxygen saturation level

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's oxygen saturation level first. This action is crucial in assessing the severity of dyspnea and determining the necessity for oxygen therapy. Administering oxygen therapy without knowing the current oxygen saturation level can be inappropriate and potentially harmful. Encouraging deep breathing exercises and raising the head of the bed are important interventions, but assessing the oxygen saturation level takes precedence in managing dyspnea in a client with COPD.

5. A client is being treated for congestive heart failure with furosemide (Lasix). Which of these findings would be most concerning to the nurse?

• A. Increased urine output
• B. Decreased appetite
• C. Weight loss of 2 kg in 24 hours
• D. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A rapid weight loss of 2 kg in 24 hours suggests significant fluid loss, which is concerning in clients on diuretics like furosemide. Increased urine output (choice A) is an expected effect of diuretic therapy. Decreased appetite (choice B) is a common side effect but not as concerning as rapid weight loss. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg (choice D) is slightly elevated but not the most concerning finding in a client being treated for congestive heart failure with furosemide.

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