HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. A client is receiving continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following statements indicates the need for more teaching by the nurse?
- A. I should take all my medications every morning.
- B. The catheter should always remain in place.
- C. The catheter should be flushed daily with sterile saline.
- D. If I gain 2 pounds, I should skip dialysis that day.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Gaining weight is a sign that the client may be retaining fluid, indicating a need for dialysis to remove excess fluid. Skipping dialysis based on weight gain can lead to fluid overload, electrolyte imbalances, and other serious complications. Choices A, B, and C are all correct statements regarding peritoneal dialysis care: taking medications as prescribed is essential for overall health, ensuring the catheter remains in place is crucial to prevent infection, and flushing the catheter with sterile saline daily helps maintain its patency and reduce the risk of infections.
2. What is a priority intervention for a patient experiencing a thyroid storm?
- A. Administering antipyretics.
- B. Cooling the patient.
- C. Administering beta-blockers.
- D. Administering antithyroid medications.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a thyroid storm, the priority intervention is to administer antithyroid medications to reduce thyroid hormone levels quickly. These medications, such as propylthiouracil or methimazole, help inhibit the production of thyroid hormones. Administering antipyretics (choice A) may help reduce fever, but it does not address the underlying cause of the thyroid storm. Cooling the patient (choice B) may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the thyroid hormone dysregulation. Administering beta-blockers (choice C) can help manage symptoms like tachycardia and hypertension, but it does not target the root cause of the thyroid storm.
3. A male client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is refusing to take his medication and has missed two hemodialysis appointments. What is the best initial action for the nurse?
- A. Discuss what the treatment regimen means to him.
- B. Refer the client to a mental health nurse practitioner.
- C. Reschedule the appointments to another date and time.
- D. Discuss the option of peritoneal dialysis.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best initial action for the nurse in this scenario is to have a discussion with the client about what the treatment regimen means to him. It is important to assess the client's anxiety, coping styles, and acceptance of the required treatment for CKD. The client may be in denial of the diagnosis or may have concerns that need to be addressed. While rescheduling hemodialysis appointments could be helpful, referring the client to a mental health nurse practitioner or discussing peritoneal dialysis are not the most appropriate first steps. Understanding the client's perspective and concerns is crucial before exploring other interventions.
4. After teaching a client with nephrotic syndrome and a normal glomerular filtration rate, the nurse assesses the client’s understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the nutritional therapy for this condition?
- A. I must decrease my intake of fat.
- B. I will increase my intake of protein.
- C. A decreased intake of carbohydrates will be required.
- D. An increased intake of vitamin C is necessary.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In nephrotic syndrome, there is significant renal loss of protein leading to hypoalbuminemia and edema formation. If glomerular filtration is normal or near normal, increased protein loss should be matched by an increased intake of protein. Therefore, the correct statement indicating a correct understanding of the nutritional therapy for this condition is increasing protein intake. Decreasing fat, decreasing carbohydrates, or increasing vitamin C intake is not necessary for addressing the underlying issues associated with nephrotic syndrome.
5. A female patient will receive doxycycline to treat a sexually transmitted infection (STI). What information will the nurse include when teaching this patient about this medication?
- A. Nausea and vomiting are uncommon adverse effects.
- B. The drug may cause possible teratogenic effects.
- C. Increase intake of dairy products with each dose of this medication.
- D. Use a backup method of contraception if taking oral contraceptives.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The desired action of oral contraceptives can be reduced when taken with tetracyclines like doxycycline. Therefore, patients on oral contraceptives should be advised to use a backup contraception method while taking doxycycline. Choice A is incorrect because nausea and vomiting are common adverse effects of doxycycline. Choice B is incorrect because doxycycline is not known for causing teratogenic effects. Choice C is incorrect because dairy products can interfere with the absorption of doxycycline, so they should be avoided when taking this medication.
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