Nursing Elites

1. A client is diagnosed with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus pneumonia. What type of isolation is most appropriate for this client?

• A. Reverse
• B. Airborne
• C. Standard precautions
• D. Contact

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Contact.' Contact precautions are necessary for clients with MRSA pneumonia to prevent the spread of the resistant bacteria. MRSA is primarily spread by direct contact, so using contact precautions, such as wearing gloves and gowns, is essential. Choice A, 'Reverse,' is not a type of isolation precaution. Choice B, 'Airborne,' is not the appropriate isolation for MRSA pneumonia, as MRSA is not transmitted through the airborne route. Choice C, 'Standard precautions,' are important for all clients, but for MRSA pneumonia specifically, contact precautions are more targeted and necessary.

2. Which bed position is preferred for use with a client in an extended care facility on a falls risk prevention protocol?

• A. All 4 side rails up, wheels locked, bed closest to door
• B. Lower side rails up, bed facing the doorway
• C. Knees bent, head slightly elevated, bed in the lowest position
• D. Bed in the lowest position, wheels locked, place bed against the wall

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Placing the bed in the lowest position, ensuring wheels are locked, and positioning it against the wall is the preferred bed position for a client in an extended care facility on a falls risk prevention protocol. This setup helps minimize the risk of falls by providing a stable and secure environment. Choices A, B, and C do not address key factors such as having the bed in the lowest position and placing it against the wall, which are crucial in preventing falls in such a setting.

3. A client is being maintained on heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis. The nurse must closely monitor which of the following laboratory values?

• A. Bleeding time
• B. Platelet count
• C. Activated PTT
• D. Clotting time

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Activated PTT is the correct lab value to monitor for clients on heparin therapy. Activated PTT (partial thromboplastin time) helps assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy by measuring the time it takes for blood to clot. Monitoring activated PTT ensures that the client is within the therapeutic range of heparin to prevent both clotting and bleeding complications. Bleeding time (Choice A) and platelet count (Choice B) are not specific indicators of heparin therapy effectiveness. Clotting time (Choice D) is not as sensitive as activated PTT in monitoring heparin therapy.

4. The nurse assesses a 72-year-old client who was admitted for right-sided congestive heart failure. Which of the following would the nurse anticipate finding?

• A. Decreased urinary output
• B. Jugular vein distention
• C. Pleural effusion
• D. Bibasilar crackles

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In right-sided congestive heart failure, the nurse would anticipate finding jugular vein distention. This occurs due to increased venous pressure, leading to the distention of the jugular veins in the neck. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Decreased urinary output is not typically associated with right-sided heart failure; pleural effusion and bibasilar crackles are more commonly seen in conditions like left-sided heart failure.

5. The client is being taught to select foods rich in potassium to help prevent digitalis toxicity. Which choice indicates the client understands dietary needs?

• A. Three apricots
• B. Medium banana
• C. Naval orange
• D. Baked potato

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A baked potato is high in potassium and helps prevent digitalis toxicity by maintaining adequate potassium levels. While choices A, B, and C all contain some potassium, a baked potato is a more concentrated source of potassium compared to three apricots, a medium banana, or a naval orange. Therefore, the client should choose a baked potato to better meet the dietary needs for preventing digitalis toxicity.

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