Nursing Elites

1. A client is being treated with an aminoglycoside antibiotic for a serious gram-negative infection. What nursing action should be included in the plan of care to prevent nephrotoxicity?

• A. Monitor serum creatinine levels daily.
• B. Administer the antibiotic over a longer period of time.
• C. Encourage increased fluid intake.
• D. Restrict dietary protein intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring serum creatinine levels daily is the essential nursing action to prevent nephrotoxicity from aminoglycoside antibiotics. Aminoglycosides can cause kidney damage, so monitoring serum creatinine levels helps in detecting early signs of nephrotoxicity. Administering the antibiotic over a longer period of time (choice B) does not directly prevent nephrotoxicity. Encouraging increased fluid intake (choice C) is a general good practice but not specifically aimed at preventing nephrotoxicity. Restricting dietary protein intake (choice D) is not a direct preventive measure against aminoglycoside-induced nephrotoxicity.

2. A male client with ulcerative colitis received a prescription for a corticosteroid last month, but because of the side effects, he stopped taking the medication 6 days ago. Which finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Anxiety and restlessness
• B. Increased bowel movements
• C. Abdominal cramping
• D. Fever and chills

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anxiety and restlessness. Abruptly stopping corticosteroids can cause adrenal insufficiency, leading to symptoms such as anxiety and restlessness. These symptoms indicate a potential serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Increased bowel movements and abdominal cramping are common side effects of ulcerative colitis and may not warrant immediate intervention. Fever and chills are not typically associated with adrenal insufficiency caused by corticosteroid withdrawal.

3. A client with a postoperative wound that eviscerated yesterday has an elevated temperature. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Initiate contact isolation.
• B. Obtain a wound swab for culture and sensitivity.
• C. Assess temperature every 4 hours.
• D. Use alcohol-based solutions for hand hygiene.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the most critical intervention is to obtain a wound swab for culture and sensitivity. This will help identify the causative organism present in the wound, enabling healthcare providers to prescribe the appropriate treatment. Initiating contact isolation (Choice A) may be necessary in certain situations but is not the priority in this case where infection is suspected. Assessing the temperature (Choice C) is important for monitoring the client's condition but does not address the underlying cause. Using alcohol-based solutions for hand hygiene (Choice D) is a standard practice for infection control but does not directly address the client's specific condition of a postoperative wound with evisceration and elevated temperature.

4. A client with a tracheostomy has thick, tenacious secretions. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Encourage the client to drink plenty of fluids.
• B. Perform deep suctioning every 2 to 4 hours.
• C. Increase humidity in the client's room.
• D. Administer a mucolytic agent.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increasing humidity in the client's room can help liquefy thick secretions and facilitate easier airway clearance in a client with a tracheostomy. Encouraging the client to drink plenty of fluids can be beneficial for overall hydration but may not directly address thick secretions. Deep suctioning every 2 to 4 hours can be harmful and cause trauma to the airway lining. Administering a mucolytic agent should be done under the healthcare provider's order and may not be the initial intervention for thick secretions.

5. The nurse is assessing a 1-year-old child with bronchiolitis caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Wheezing heard on expiration
• B. Oxygen saturation of 90%
• C. Respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute
• D. Nasal flaring with sternal retractions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nasal flaring with sternal retractions indicates severe respiratory distress in a 1-year-old with bronchiolitis, requiring immediate intervention. Nasal flaring and sternal retractions are signs of increased work of breathing and decreased air movement, indicating the child is struggling to breathe. Wheezing on expiration (Choice A) is common in bronchiolitis but may not require immediate intervention. An oxygen saturation of 90% (Choice B) is low but may not be the most critical finding in this case. A respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute (Choice C) is elevated but alone may not indicate the need for immediate intervention as much as nasal flaring and sternal retractions.

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