Nursing Elites

1. A client is being treated with an aminoglycoside antibiotic for a serious gram-negative infection. What nursing action should be included in the plan of care to prevent nephrotoxicity?

• A. Monitor serum creatinine levels daily.
• B. Administer the antibiotic over a longer period of time.
• C. Encourage increased fluid intake.
• D. Restrict dietary protein intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring serum creatinine levels daily is the essential nursing action to prevent nephrotoxicity from aminoglycoside antibiotics. Aminoglycosides can cause kidney damage, so monitoring serum creatinine levels helps in detecting early signs of nephrotoxicity. Administering the antibiotic over a longer period of time (choice B) does not directly prevent nephrotoxicity. Encouraging increased fluid intake (choice C) is a general good practice but not specifically aimed at preventing nephrotoxicity. Restricting dietary protein intake (choice D) is not a direct preventive measure against aminoglycoside-induced nephrotoxicity.

2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. INR of 3.5
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds
• C. Headache
• D. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A headache in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation receiving warfarin (Coumadin) is concerning as it may indicate bleeding, which requires immediate assessment and intervention. Headaches can be a symptom of increased intracranial pressure due to bleeding, especially in patients on anticoagulants. Options A and B are within acceptable ranges for a client on warfarin therapy, indicating that the medication is effectively managing the clotting times. Option D, a blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg, while elevated, is not directly related to the client's condition of atrial fibrillation and warfarin therapy.

3. The nurse is reinforcing home care instructions with a client who is being discharged following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the client teaching?

• A. Avoid strenuous activity for 6 weeks.
• B. Report fresh blood in the urine.
• C. Take acetaminophen for a fever over 101°F.
• D. Consume 6 to 8 glasses of water daily.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Reporting fresh blood in the urine is crucial as it may indicate postoperative complications requiring immediate attention. This symptom can be a sign of bleeding, infection, or other issues that need prompt medical evaluation. Avoiding strenuous activity for 6 weeks is important but not as urgent as reporting fresh blood. Taking acetaminophen for a fever over 101°F is relevant but addressing fresh blood in the urine takes precedence. Consuming an adequate amount of water daily is beneficial but not as critical as recognizing and reporting signs of potential complications.

4. The nurse who is working on a surgical unit receives a change of shift report on a group of clients for the upcoming shift. A client with which condition requires the most immediate attention by the nurse?

• A. Gunshot wound three hours ago with dark drainage of 2 cm noted on the dressing.
• B. Mastectomy 2 days ago with 50 ml bloody drainage noted in the Jackson-Pratt drain.
• C. Collapsed lung after a fall 8 hours ago with 100 ml blood in the chest tube collection container
• D. Abdominal-perineal resection 2 days ago with no drainage on dressing who has fever and chills.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A client who had an abdominal-perineal resection 2 days ago with no drainage on the dressing but is presenting with fever and chills requires immediate attention. This presentation raises concerns for peritonitis, a serious complication that necessitates prompt assessment and intervention to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C do not indicate an immediate risk for a life-threatening condition like peritonitis, making them lower priority compared to choice D.

5. An adult female client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) asks the nurse if she can continue taking her over-the-counter medications. Which medication poses the greatest threat to this client?

• A. Magnesium hydroxide (Maalox).
• B. Birth control pills.
• C. Cough syrup containing codeine.
• D. Cold medication containing alcohol.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Magnesium hydroxide (Maalox). In clients with chronic kidney disease (CKD), magnesium can accumulate to toxic levels as the kidneys are unable to excrete it efficiently. This can lead to hypermagnesemia, causing serious and potentially life-threatening complications. Birth control pills (choice B) are metabolized mainly by the liver and do not pose a significant threat to clients with CKD. Cough syrup containing codeine (choice C) should be used cautiously in CKD due to the risk of respiratory depression but does not pose as great a threat as magnesium accumulation. Cold medication containing alcohol (choice D) should be avoided in CKD but does not present the same level of danger as magnesium toxicity.

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