HESI RN
HESI Nutrition Proctored Exam Quizlet
1. A client is being treated for tuberculosis (TB). Which of these statements indicates the client understands the transmission of TB?
- A. I need to wear a mask when I go out in public to prevent spreading the infection.
- B. I need to take my medication as prescribed to prevent spreading the infection to others.
- C. I need to cover my mouth when I cough to prevent spreading the infection.
- D. I need to isolate myself from others until my treatment is complete to prevent spreading the infection.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because wearing a mask in public can help prevent the spread of TB to others. Choice B is incorrect as taking medication as prescribed helps in treating the infection within the individual but does not directly prevent spreading it to others. Choice C is important for respiratory hygiene but may not be sufficient to prevent transmission. Choice D, isolation until treatment is complete, is crucial for preventing the spread but is not specifically about understanding transmission.
2. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with the parent of a toddler about appropriate snacks. Which of the following foods should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Sliced bananas
- B. Raw celery
- C. Peanut butter
- D. Marshmallows
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sliced bananas. Sliced bananas are a healthy and safe snack option for toddlers as they provide essential nutrients and are easy to chew. Bananas are a good source of potassium and fiber. Choice B, raw celery, may pose a choking hazard for toddlers due to its stringy texture. Choice C, peanut butter, can also be a choking hazard and may not be suitable for all toddlers due to potential allergies. Choice D, marshmallows, are high in sugar and low in nutrients, making them an unhealthy choice for toddler snacks.
3. A client is being discharged with a prescription for chlorpromazine (Thorazine). Before leaving for home, which of these findings should the nurse teach the client to report?
- A. Change in libido, breast enlargement
- B. Sore throat, fever
- C. Abdominal pain, nausea, diarrhea
- D. Dsypnea, nasal congestion
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Sore throat and fever." These symptoms can indicate a serious side effect of chlorpromazine and should be reported immediately. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not typically associated with adverse effects of chlorpromazine. Changes in libido and breast enlargement are not commonly linked to this medication. Abdominal pain, nausea, and diarrhea are more likely to be gastrointestinal side effects. Dyspnea and nasal congestion are not commonly reported adverse effects of chlorpromazine.
4. Which of these nursing assessments would be the highest priority for a client at risk for aspiration pneumonia?
- A. Assessing the client's level of consciousness
- B. Monitoring the client's oxygen saturation
- C. Checking the client's gag reflex before eating or drinking
- D. Monitoring the client's intake and output
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Checking the client's gag reflex before eating or drinking is the highest priority for a client at risk for aspiration pneumonia. Aspiration pneumonia can occur when food, liquids, or saliva are inhaled into the lungs, leading to inflammation or infection. Checking the gag reflex helps prevent the aspiration of substances into the lungs. Assessing the client's level of consciousness (Choice A) is important but not as immediately critical as checking the gag reflex. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice B) is essential for respiratory assessment but does not directly prevent aspiration. Monitoring intake and output (Choice D) is important for overall client management but does not specifically address the risk of aspiration pneumonia.
5. While assessing several clients in a long-term health care facility, which client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers?
- A. A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest
- B. An obese client who uses a wheelchair
- C. A client who had 3 incontinent diarrhea stools
- D. An 80-year-old ambulatory diabetic client
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest. This client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers due to poor nutrition and immobility. Malnutrition can impair tissue healing and increase susceptibility to skin breakdown, while prolonged bed rest can lead to pressure ulcers. Choice B is incorrect because obesity can cushion pressure points and reduce the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as incontinence predisposes to moisture-associated skin damage rather than pressure ulcers. Choice D is incorrect as an ambulatory client is less likely to develop pressure ulcers compared to bedridden clients.
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