HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Specialty Exam
1. A client in the postanesthesia care unit has an as-needed prescription for ondansetron (Zofran). Which of the following occurrences would prompt the nurse to administer this medication to the client?
- A. Paralytic ileus
- B. Incisional pain
- C. Urine retention
- D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Nausea and vomiting. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to manage postoperative nausea and vomiting, as well as nausea and vomiting related to chemotherapy. It is not indicated for treating paralytic ileus, incisional pain, or urine retention. Paralytic ileus is a condition of the gastrointestinal tract characterized by the paralysis of intestinal muscles, which would not be treated with ondansetron. Incisional pain is typically managed with analgesics, not antiemetics. Urine retention is a urinary issue that does not involve nausea and vomiting, making ondansetron an inappropriate choice for this condition.
2. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) has been experiencing severe reflux during sleep. Which recommendation by the nurse is most effective to assist the client?
- A. Losing weight.
- B. Decreasing caffeine intake.
- C. Avoiding large meals.
- D. Raising the head of the bed on blocks.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to raise the head of the bed on blocks (reverse Trendelenburg position). This elevation helps reduce reflux by using gravity to keep stomach contents from flowing back into the esophagus during sleep. Losing weight (Choice A) could be beneficial in managing GERD, but it may not be as effective for immediate relief during sleep. Decreasing caffeine intake (Choice B) and avoiding large meals (Choice C) are also valuable recommendations to manage GERD; however, they may not specifically address the issue of reflux during sleep as directly and effectively as elevating the head of the bed.
3. The nurse is teaching a patient who will be discharged home from the hospital to take amoxicillin (Amoxil) twice daily for 10 days. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
- A. Discontinue the antibiotic when your temperature returns to normal and your symptoms have improved.
- B. If diarrhea occurs, stop taking the drug immediately and contact your provider.
- C. Stop taking the drug and notify your provider if you develop a rash while taking this drug.
- D. You may save any unused antibiotic to use if your symptoms recur.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Patients who develop signs of allergy, such as rash, should notify their provider before continuing medication therapy. Patients should be counseled to continue taking their antibiotics until completion of the prescribed regimen even when they feel well. Diarrhea is an adverse effect but does not warrant cessation of the drug. Before deciding to stop taking a medication due to a side effect, encourage the patient to contact the provider first. Patients should discard any unused antibiotic.
4. Why is lactated Ringer’s solution given to a patient experiencing vomiting and diarrhea?
- A. To increase interstitial and intracellular hydration
- B. To maintain plasma volume over time
- C. To pull water from the interstitial space into the extracellular fluid
- D. To replace water and electrolytes
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Lactated Ringer’s solution is an isotonic solution commonly used to replace water and electrolytes lost due to conditions like vomiting and diarrhea. It helps to restore fluid balance by replacing the lost volume and electrolytes. Option A is incorrect because hypotonic fluids, not lactated Ringer’s solution, increase interstitial and intracellular hydration. Option B is incorrect as colloidal solutions, not lactated Ringer’s solution, are used to maintain plasma volume over time. Option C is incorrect as hypertonic solutions, not lactated Ringer’s solution, pull water from the interstitial space into the extracellular fluid.
5. The healthcare provider is assessing an older Caucasian male who has a history of peripheral vascular disease. The healthcare provider observes that the man's left great toe is black. The discoloration is probably a result of:
- A. Atrophy.
- B. Contraction.
- C. Gangrene.
- D. Rubor.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Gangrene refers to dead, blackened tissue, often a result of chronic ischemia in clients with peripheral vascular disease. Atrophy (Choice A) is the wasting away or decrease in size of tissue or organ. Contraction (Choice B) refers to the shortening or tightening of a muscle or other body part. Rubor (Choice D) is a red discoloration of the skin, often associated with inflammation or poor circulation, but not typically presenting as blackening like gangrene.
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