HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Specialty Exam
1. A client in the postanesthesia care unit has an as-needed prescription for ondansetron (Zofran). Which of the following occurrences would prompt the nurse to administer this medication to the client?
- A. Paralytic ileus
- B. Incisional pain
- C. Urine retention
- D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Nausea and vomiting. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to manage postoperative nausea and vomiting, as well as nausea and vomiting related to chemotherapy. It is not indicated for treating paralytic ileus, incisional pain, or urine retention. Paralytic ileus is a condition of the gastrointestinal tract characterized by the paralysis of intestinal muscles, which would not be treated with ondansetron. Incisional pain is typically managed with analgesics, not antiemetics. Urine retention is a urinary issue that does not involve nausea and vomiting, making ondansetron an inappropriate choice for this condition.
2. The nurse is preparing to begin a medication regimen for a patient who will receive intravenous ampicillin and gentamicin. Which is an important nursing action?
- A. Administer each antibiotic to infuse over 15 to 20 minutes.
- B. Order serum peak and trough levels of ampicillin.
- C. Prepare the schedule so that the drugs are given at the same time.
- D. Set up separate tubing sets for each drug labeled with the drug name and date.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When administering intravenous aminoglycosides like gentamicin with penicillins such as ampicillin, it is crucial to avoid mixing them in the same container. Separate tubing sets labeled with the drug name and date should be used to prevent interactions between the medications. Administering each antibiotic over 15 to 20 minutes (Choice A) may not be appropriate for all medications and does not address the issue of compatibility. Ordering serum peak and trough levels of ampicillin (Choice B) is important for monitoring drug levels but does not directly address the administration process. Preparing a schedule to give drugs simultaneously (Choice C) may increase the risk of drug interactions and is not recommended when administering incompatible medications.
3. During CPR, when attempting to ventilate a client's lungs, the nurse notes that the chest is not moving. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Use a laryngoscope to check for a foreign body lodged in the airway.
- B. Reposition the head to ensure that the airway is properly opened.
- C. Turn the client to the side and administer three back blows.
- D. Perform a finger sweep of the mouth to clear any obstructions.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most common reason for inadequate lung aeration during CPR is the incorrect positioning of the head, leading to airway obstruction. Therefore, the initial action should be to reposition the head to open the airway properly and attempt to ventilate again. Using a laryngoscope to check for foreign bodies in the airway (Choice A) is not the first step and could delay crucial interventions. Turning the client to the side and administering back blows (Choice C) is not indicated in this scenario as the focus is on ventilating the lungs. Performing a finger sweep of the mouth (Choice D) is not recommended as it may push obstructions further into the airway during CPR.
4. A client who is scheduled for cardiac catheterization to rule out coronary occlusion should be informed by the nurse that:
- A. The procedure is performed in a darkened room in the radiology department
- B. It is necessary to lie quietly on a hard x-ray table for about 4 hours
- C. The room is bright and well lit, and it is best to keep the eyes closed
- D. The client may have feelings of warmth or flushing during the procedure
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Before cardiac catheterization, the nurse should inform the client that the procedure is performed in a darkened room in the radiology department, not the operating room. The client should expect to lie still on an x-ray table for the duration of the procedure, not necessarily for about 4 hours. Keeping the eyes closed is not necessary as the room is usually dimly lit. The client may experience sensations of warmth or flushing during the procedure due to catheter passage and dye injection, making choice D the correct answer.
5. Which of the following is the best position for a patient experiencing dyspnea?
- A. Supine position.
- B. Fowler's position.
- C. Trendelenburg position.
- D. Lateral recumbent position.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Fowler's position is the best position for a patient experiencing dyspnea. This position involves sitting the patient upright with the head of the bed elevated between 45-60 degrees. Fowler's position helps improve breathing in patients with dyspnea by promoting lung expansion, aiding in better oxygenation, and reducing the work of breathing. The supine position (Choice A) may worsen dyspnea by limiting lung expansion. The Trendelenburg position (Choice C) with the feet elevated and the head down is not recommended for dyspnea as it can increase pressure on the chest and compromise breathing. The lateral recumbent position (Choice D) is not ideal for dyspnea as it does not provide optimal lung expansion and may not alleviate breathing difficulty.
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