HESI RN
Community Health HESI 2023
1. A client is suspected of being poisoned and presents with symmetric, descending flaccid paralysis, blurred vision, double vision, and dry mouth. The nurse should consider these findings consistent with which potential bioterrorism agent?
- A. ricin
- B. botulism toxin
- C. sulfur mustard
- D. yersinia pestis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: botulism toxin. The symptoms described, including symmetric, descending flaccid paralysis, blurred vision, double vision, and dry mouth, are classic manifestations of botulism, which is caused by a toxin produced by Clostridium botulinum. This toxin affects the nervous system, leading to muscle weakness and paralysis. Choice A, ricin, typically presents with gastrointestinal symptoms and organ failure. Choice C, sulfur mustard, causes blistering skin and respiratory issues. Choice D, yersinia pestis, is associated with the plague and presents with fever, chills, weakness, and swollen lymph nodes.
2. The nurse obtains a pulse rate of 89 beats/min for an infant before administering digoxin (Lanoxin). What action should the nurse take?
- A. Administer the medication.
- B. Hold the medication and contact the healthcare provider.
- C. Double the dose.
- D. Increase fluid intake.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the medication and contact the healthcare provider. Bradycardia (pulse rate less than 100 beats/minute) is an early sign of digoxin toxicity. It is essential to withhold digoxin and notify the healthcare provider to prevent potential adverse effects. Administering the medication (Choice A) could exacerbate the toxicity. Doubling the dose (Choice C) is inappropriate and dangerous. Increasing fluid intake (Choice D) is not indicated in this situation and does not address the issue of digoxin toxicity.
3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which laboratory result indicates that the therapy is effective?
- A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 1.0.
- B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds.
- C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 60 seconds.
- D. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An International Normalized Ratio (INR) of 2.5 indicates that warfarin therapy is within the therapeutic range for a client with atrial fibrillation. A lower INR (such as 1.0) would suggest subtherapeutic levels, risking blood clots. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) are not specific to monitoring warfarin therapy.
4. The nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube to continuous suction. Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hypercalcemia.
- B. Hypokalemia.
- C. Hyponatremia.
- D. Hypomagnesemia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. When a client has a nasogastric tube to continuous suction, potassium loss through gastric fluids can lead to hypokalemia. Hypercalcemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with continuous suction. Hyponatremia (Choice C) involves sodium imbalance and is not directly related to nasogastric suction. Hypomagnesemia (Choice D) is not the primary concern in this situation, as potassium loss is more significant with gastric suction.
5. A client with a history of seizures is admitted with status epilepticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?
- A. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
- B. Diazepam (Valium)
- C. Lorazepam (Ativan)
- D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, the initial medication of choice is a benzodiazepine to rapidly terminate the seizure activity. Lorazepam (Ativan) is preferred over Diazepam (Valium) due to its longer duration of action and lower risk of respiratory depression. Phenytoin (Dilantin) and Carbamazepine (Tegretol) are not the first-line agents for the acute treatment of status epilepticus, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.
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