Nursing Elites

1. A public health nurse is evaluating a program designed to reduce childhood obesity. Which outcome indicates that the program is successful?

• A. increased participation in physical activities
• B. higher attendance at nutrition education sessions
• C. reduced rates of childhood obesity
• D. greater knowledge of healthy eating habits

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: reduced rates of childhood obesity. A reduction in childhood obesity rates is a direct indicator that the program is successful in achieving its goal. Increased participation in physical activities (choice A) and higher attendance at nutrition education sessions (choice B) are positive outcomes, but they do not directly measure the program's effectiveness in reducing obesity. Greater knowledge of healthy eating habits (choice D) is important but does not guarantee a decrease in obesity rates. Therefore, the most significant outcome to determine the success of a childhood obesity reduction program is a reduction in obesity rates.

2. During a follow-up visit, a client with hypertension reports that they often forget to take their medication. What should the nurse do first?

• A. educate the client on the importance of medication adherence
• B. explore the reasons for the client's forgetfulness
• C. provide the client with a pill organizer
• D. adjust the client's medication schedule

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse is to explore the reasons for the client's forgetfulness. By understanding the underlying causes, the nurse can provide tailored interventions to help the client improve medication adherence. Providing education on the importance of adherence (Choice A) may be necessary but should come after identifying the reasons for forgetfulness. Simply providing a pill organizer (Choice C) or adjusting the medication schedule (Choice D) does not address the root cause of the forgetfulness and may not lead to sustained improvement in adherence.

3. The public health nurse is creating a plan to increase state funding for a local health clinic. Which strategy is likely to be most effective in obtaining funding for the clinic?

• A. Run the health clinic economically and promote the services the clinic provides.
• B. Organize concerned citizens to write letters and call state representatives.
• C. Highlight to the media the valuable services offered by the community clinic.
• D. Hire a professional lobbyist to convince Congress of the local clinic's value.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Organizing concerned citizens to contact state representatives is likely the most effective strategy to secure state funding for the local health clinic. By mobilizing a group of citizens who are directly impacted by the clinic's services, the public health nurse can create a strong advocacy group that can influence decision-makers. Option A, running the health clinic economically and promoting its services, may be necessary but does not directly address the funding aspect. Option C, highlighting services to the media, may raise awareness but does not guarantee funding. Option D, hiring a professional lobbyist, may be costly and may not have the same grassroots impact as organizing citizens.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a suspected pulmonary embolism. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Chest pain.
• B. Shortness of breath.
• C. Tachycardia.
• D. Cyanosis.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cyanosis is a late sign of hypoxemia and indicates severe oxygen deprivation, necessitating immediate intervention in a client with a suspected pulmonary embolism. Chest pain, shortness of breath, and tachycardia are also concerning symptoms in pulmonary embolism; however, cyanosis signifies critical oxygen deficiency and warrants urgent attention to prevent further complications.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing the laboratory results for a client who is admitted with renal failure and osteodystrophy. Which findings are consistent with this client's clinical picture?

• A. Serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L and total calcium of 9 mg/dL.
• B. White blood cell count of 15,000/mm3.
• C. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L and total calcium of 6 mg/dL.
• D. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL and phosphorus of 2 mg/dL.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In renal failure and osteodystrophy, there is an alteration in serum electrolyte balance. The correct answer is serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L and total calcium of 6 mg/dL. Renal failure is associated with hyperkalemia (elevated serum potassium) and hypocalcemia (low total calcium levels). Hyperphosphatemia is also commonly seen in renal failure. Choice A is incorrect as it describes normal levels of serum potassium and total calcium. Choice B is unrelated to the client's condition. Choice D is incorrect as it does not reflect the typical electrolyte imbalances seen in renal failure and osteodystrophy.

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