Nursing Elites

1. A child who weighs 25 kg is receiving IV ampicillin 300 mg/kg/24 hours in equally divided doses every 4 hours. How many milligrams should the nurse administer to the child for each dose?

• A. 1875 mg
• B. 625 mg
• C. 2000 mg
• D. 1500 mg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the dose for each administration, multiply the child's weight (25 kg) by the dose (300 mg/kg/24 hours) and divide by the number of doses per day (6, as doses are every 4 hours). This gives us (25 kg * 300 mg/kg / 24 hours) / 6 doses = 1875 mg. Therefore, the nurse should administer 1875 mg for each dose. Choice B, 625 mg, is incorrect as it does not consider the correct calculation based on the weight and prescribed dose. Choice C, 2000 mg, is incorrect as it is not derived from the correct dosage calculation. Choice D, 1500 mg, is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate dosage calculation based on the weight of the child and the prescribed dose.

2. The nurse is caring for a 10-year-old child who is scheduled for surgery to repair a fractured femur. The child’s parent expresses concern about the child being afraid of the surgery. What is the nurse’s best response?

• A. Children at this age are usually not afraid of surgery
• B. It’s normal for your child to feel scared. Let’s talk about what to expect
• C. You should talk to the surgeon about your child’s fear
• D. Don’t worry, your child will be fine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Acknowledging the child’s fear and providing information about what to expect can help alleviate anxiety.

3. What action should the nurse implement after the infusion is complete for a 16-year-old with acute myelocytic leukemia receiving chemotherapy via an implanted medication port at the outpatient oncology clinic?

• A. Administer Zofran
• B. Obtain blood samples for RBCs, WBCs, and platelets
• C. Flush the mediport with saline and heparin solution
• D. Initiate an infusion of normal saline

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After completing the chemotherapy infusion via the implanted medication port, the nurse should flush the mediport with saline and heparin solution. This action helps prevent clot formation in the port, ensuring its patency for future use and reducing the risk of complications associated with catheter occlusion. Administering Zofran (Choice A) is used for managing chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting, not for post-infusion care. Obtaining blood samples for RBCs, WBCs, and platelets (Choice B) is important for monitoring the patient's blood count but is not the immediate post-infusion priority. Initiating an infusion of normal saline (Choice D) is not necessary after completing the chemotherapy infusion.

4. A 7-year-old child with sickle cell anemia presents to the emergency department with severe pain in the arms and legs. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer prescribed pain medication
• B. Apply warm compresses to the affected areas
• C. Encourage the child to drink fluids
• D. Monitor the child’s oxygen saturation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a sickle cell crisis, pain management is a priority due to the severe pain experienced by the child. Administering prescribed pain medication is crucial to alleviate the pain and provide comfort to the child. Once pain is controlled, other comfort measures like applying warm compresses and encouraging fluid intake can be implemented. Monitoring oxygen saturation is important but not the priority action when dealing with severe pain in a sickle cell crisis.

5. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarction of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?

• A. The aortic semilunar valve obstructs blood flow into the systemic circulation
• B. The lumen of the aorta reduces the volume of the blood flow to the lower extremities
• C. The pulmonic valve prevents adequate blood volume into the pulmonary circulation
• D. An opening in the atrial septum causes a murmur due to a turbulent left-to-right shunt

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Coarctation of the aorta causes narrowing of the aorta, reducing blood flow to the lower extremities. This narrowing results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, along with stronger brachial pulses and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanism of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically leads to reduced blood flow to the lower extremities.

Similar Questions