Nursing Elites

1. A child who weighs 25 kg is receiving IV ampicillin at a dose of 300 mg/kg/24 hours in equally divided doses every 4 hours. How many milligrams should the nurse administer to the child for each dose?

• A. 1875 mg
• B. 625 mg
• C. 2000 mg
• D. 1500 mg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the correct dose for each administration, you first need to find the total daily dose: 300 mg/kg * 25 kg = 7500 mg/day. Since this total dose is divided into equally divided doses every 4 hours, there are 6 doses in 24 hours. Therefore, 7500 mg ÷ 6 doses = 1250 mg per dose. The nurse should administer 1250 mg every 4 hours, resulting in a total of 1875 mg for each dose in a 24-hour period. Choice A, 1875 mg, is the correct answer. Choice B, 625 mg, is incorrect as it does not consider the total daily dose and the frequency of administration. Choice C, 2000 mg, is incorrect as it is not the calculated dosage based on the given parameters. Choice D, 1500 mg, is also incorrect as it does not reflect the correct dosage calculation for each dose.

2. In a 6-year-old child with asthma experiencing difficulty breathing and using accessory muscles to breathe with a peak flow reading in the red zone, what should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer a nebulized bronchodilator
• B. Obtain an arterial blood gas
• C. Start the child on oxygen therapy
• D. Contact the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for a 6-year-old child with asthma who is experiencing difficulty breathing, using accessory muscles to breathe, and has a peak flow reading in the red zone is to administer a nebulized bronchodilator first. Nebulized bronchodilators work rapidly to open up the airways, providing immediate relief and improving breathing. This intervention is crucial in addressing the acute respiratory distress the child is facing. Obtaining an arterial blood gas, starting oxygen therapy, or contacting the healthcare provider can be considered after the initial administration of the bronchodilator, as they are not the primary interventions needed to manage the child's acute respiratory distress.

3. A parent of a 2-month-old infant, who was treated for pyloric stenosis, is receiving discharge instructions from a healthcare provider. Which statement by the parent indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. We will burp our baby more frequently during feedings
• B. We should feed our baby in an upright position
• C. We will lay our baby on their stomach after feeding
• D. We will start feeding our baby with small, frequent feedings

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing infants on their stomach after feeding increases the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). It is important to educate parents to always place infants on their back to sleep to reduce this risk.

4. A 7-year-old child with a history of asthma presents to the clinic with shortness of breath and wheezing. The nurse notes that the child’s peak flow reading is in the red zone. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer a bronchodilator
• B. Reassess the peak flow reading
• C. Notify the healthcare provider
• D. Provide oxygen therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a child with asthma presents with shortness of breath and wheezing, and the peak flow reading is in the red zone, indicating severe airflow limitation, the priority intervention is to administer a bronchodilator. Bronchodilators help dilate the airways quickly, improving airflow and assisting with breathing. Reassessing the peak flow reading is important but not the first action to take in a severe asthma exacerbation. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after initiating immediate treatment with a bronchodilator. Providing oxygen therapy may be needed in some cases, but addressing the airway constriction with a bronchodilator should come first to improve ventilation.

5. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarction of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?

• A. The aortic semilunar valve obstructs blood flow into the systemic circulation
• B. The lumen of the aorta reduces the volume of the blood flow to the lower extremities
• C. The pulmonic valve prevents adequate blood volume into the pulmonary circulation
• D. An opening in the atrial septum causes a murmur due to a turbulent left-to-right shunt

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Coarctation of the aorta causes narrowing of the aorta, reducing blood flow to the lower extremities. This narrowing results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, along with stronger brachial pulses and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanism of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically leads to reduced blood flow to the lower extremities.

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