Nursing Elites

1. A child admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis is demonstrating Kussmaul respirations. The nurse determines that the increased respiratory rate is a compensatory mechanism for which acid-base alteration?

• A. Metabolic alkalosis.
• B. Respiratory acidosis.
• C. Respiratory alkalosis.
• D. Metabolic acidosis.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Kussmaul respirations are deep, rapid breathing patterns observed in metabolic acidosis, such as diabetic ketoacidosis. In this condition, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate to eliminate excess carbon dioxide (CO2) and decrease the acid levels, thereby helping to correct the acid-base imbalance. Therefore, the correct answer is metabolic acidosis.

2. The parents of a 2-year-old child with a history of febrile seizures are being taught by the healthcare provider. Which statement by the parents indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. We should give our child acetaminophen when they have a fever.
• B. We should not place our child in a cool bath during a seizure.
• C. We should call 911 if the seizure lasts longer than 5 minutes.
• D. We should try to keep our child’s fever under control.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Placing a child in a cool bath during a seizure is not recommended as it can be dangerous and may lead to accidental drowning or injuries. The priority during a febrile seizure is to ensure the safety of the child by placing them on a soft surface, removing any nearby objects that may cause harm, and gently turning their head to the side to prevent aspiration. Cooling measures like removing excess clothing can be employed, but immersing the child in a cool bath is not advised. Calling 911 if the seizure lasts longer than 5 minutes is important to seek immediate medical assistance. Administering acetaminophen to reduce fever and trying to keep the child's fever under control are appropriate interventions which should be continued.

3. What should the nurse do first for a 6-year-old with asthma showing a prolonged expiratory phase, wheezing, and 35% of personal best peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR)?

• A. Administer a prescribed bronchodilator.
• B. Encourage the child to cough and take deep breaths.
• C. Report the findings to the healthcare provider.
• D. Identify the triggers that precipitated this attack.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator is the priority action in managing an acute asthma exacerbation in a child. Bronchodilators help to relax the muscles around the airways, opening them up and improving breathing. This intervention aims to address the immediate breathing difficulty and should be done promptly to provide relief for the child. Encouraging coughing and deep breaths (choice B) may worsen the child's condition by further constricting the airways. Reporting findings to the healthcare provider (choice C) is important but not the immediate priority in this acute situation. Identifying triggers (choice D) is crucial for long-term asthma management but is not the first step when managing an acute exacerbation.

4. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarctation of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?

• A. The aortic semilunar valve obstructs blood flow into the systemic circulation
• B. The lumen of the aorta reduces the volume of the blood flow to the lower extremities
• C. The pulmonic valve prevents adequate blood volume into the pulmonary circulation
• D. An opening in the atrial septum causes a murmur due to a turbulent left to right shunt

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The findings are consistent with coarctation of the aorta, where narrowing of the aorta leads to decreased blood flow to the lower extremities. This results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanisms of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically involves narrowing of the aortic lumen reducing blood flow to the lower extremities.

5. A 15-year-old adolescent with anorexia nervosa is admitted to the hospital for severe weight loss. The nurse notes that the client has dry skin, brittle hair, and is severely underweight. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?

• A. Establish a therapeutic relationship with the client
• B. Monitor the client’s vital signs frequently
• C. Initiate a structured eating plan
• D. Provide education about healthy eating habits

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority intervention for the nurse is to initiate a structured eating plan. Anorexia nervosa is a serious eating disorder characterized by severe food restriction, which can lead to malnutrition and severe weight loss. By starting a structured eating plan, the nurse can ensure the client receives the necessary nutrition to begin the process of weight restoration and recovery. Monitoring vital signs is essential, but without addressing the nutrition deficiency, vital signs may not improve significantly. Establishing a therapeutic relationship is crucial for long-term care but may not address the immediate risk of malnutrition. Providing education about healthy eating habits is important but may not be effective initially due to the severity of the client's condition.

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